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Type: Prelims Only

  • Coal and Mining Sector

    What are Critical Minerals?

    Prelims Only | | Mains Paper 1: Distribution Of Key Natural Resources Across The World

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Critical Minerals

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    • India is looking for cobalt and other critical minerals in Zambia, Namibia, Congo, Ghana and Mozambique. It is still engaging with Australia for lithium blocks.
    • Critical minerals, including lithium and cobalt, are crucial for technology, manufacturing and other industries.

    What are Critical Minerals?

    • Critical minerals are elements that are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
    • These minerals are mostly used in making electronic equipment such as mobile phones, computers, batteries, electric vehicles, and green technologies like solar panels and wind turbines.
    • Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence.

    List of critical minerals includes:

    The centre has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India in 2023:

    1. Identified Minerals: Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, Platinum Group elements (PGE), Phosphorous, Potash, Rare Earth Elements (REE), Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
    2. Fertilizer Minerals: Two minerals critical for fertilizer production, phosphorous and potash, are also included in the above list.

    Critical Mineral Blocks in India

    • Distribution: There are 20 blocks spread across eight states, including Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jammu & Kashmir.
    • Types of Licenses: Four blocks are for a Mining License (ML), allowing immediate mining post-clearance. The remaining 16 blocks are for a Composite License (CL), permitting further exploration before potentially converting to an ML.
    • Approvals Required: Licensees must obtain various approvals, including forest clearance and environmental clearance.
    • Forest Land: Approximately 17% of the total concession area, or 1,234 hectares, is forest land.

    India’s Critical Mineral Imports

    • Lithium Imports: In FY23, India imported 2,145 tonnes of lithium carbonate and lithium oxide, costing Rs 732 crore.
    • Nickel and Copper Imports: The country imported 32,000 tonnes of unwrought nickel and 1.2 million tonnes of copper ore, costing Rs 6,549 crore and Rs 27,374 crore, respectively.
    • Import Dependence: India relies entirely on imports for lithium and nickel, and 93% for copper.

    Country-wise dependence:

    1. China: India heavily relies on China for the import of critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and graphite.
    2. Australia: India is actively engaged with Australia for acquiring mineral assets, particularly lithium and cobalt, to secure its supply chain for critical minerals.
    3. Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile: India is engaging with these countries, known for their reserves of battery metals like lithium and cobalt, to diversify its sources for critical minerals.

     

    PYQ:

    2019: With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
    2. State governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
    3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Critical minerals are those elements which are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
    2. India has notified 30 elements in the Critical Minerals List.
    3. Fertilizer minerals Phosphorous and potash are also included in the Critical Minerals List.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • Freedom of Speech – Defamation, Sedition, etc.

    Hate Speech: Interpreting Section 153A IPC

    Prelims Only | Indian Society | Mains Paper 1: Communalism, Secularism, Regionalism

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Section 153A , IPC, Freedom of Speech and Reasonable Restrictions

    Mains level: NA

    What is the news?

    • The Supreme Court reiterated that to constitute an offence under Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the essential ingredient is to create a sense of enmity and disharmony amongst two or more groups or communities.
    • Quite often, politicians are arrested under section 153 A of IPC for alleged hate speech.

    Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)

    • Section 153A of the IPC deals with the offence of promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
    • The primary is to prevent the promotion of disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred, or ill-will between different groups in society.
    • It was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.

    Prohibited Acts:

    The section prohibits several acts:

    1. Engaging in activities that promote or attempt to promote feelings of enmity or hatred between different religious, racial, linguistic, or regional groups.
    2. Committing acts prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between different groups or communities.
    3. Doing anything that disturbs or disrupts public tranquillity or creates unrest among various groups.

    Essential Elements:

    To constitute an offence under Section 153A, the following essential elements must be established:

    1. Promotion of enmity or hatred between different groups.
    2. Such promotion must be based on religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
    3. The intention behind the act must be to disrupt public tranquillity or to create disharmony among groups.

    Punishment:

    • Jail Term: Any individual found guilty of committing an offence under Section 153A may be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years, or with a fine, or with both.
    • Cognizable and Non-Bailable: The offence is a cognizable offence and the punishment for the same may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both. Further, the offence is non-bailable in nature, wherein the accused is tried by the magistrate of the first class.
    • Burden of Proof: It lies with the prosecution to demonstrate that the accused’s words, actions, or conduct were aimed at promoting enmity or hatred between different groups based on the specified grounds.

    PYQ:

    2014: What do understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.

     

    2022: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
    2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Q.The Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) essentially deals with:

    1. Fake News
    2. Hate Speech
    3. Protest without permission
    4. Encroachment

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  • Modern Indian History-Events and Personalities

    Story of Usha Mehta and the Secret Congress Radio

    Prelims Only | History and Art & Culture | Mains Paper 1: Modern Indian History

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Congress Radio, Usha Mehta and other personalities mentioned

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    Who was Usha Mehta (1920-2000)?

    • Usha Mehta was born on March 25, 1920, in Mumbai, India.
    • Inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of nonviolent resistance and civil disobedience, Usha Mehta became actively involved in the Indian independence movement from a young age.
    • One of Usha Mehta’s most notable contributions to the freedom struggle was her involvement in the radio broadcasting network known as the “Secret Congress Radio.”
    • She was conferred the Padma Vibhushan, one of India’s highest civilian honours in 1998.

    The Secret ‘Congress Radio’

    • On August 8, 1942, the historic Quit India Resolution was passed during the All India Congress Committee meeting in Bombay.
    • In this response, the idea of an underground radio station, known by various names such as the Freedom Radio, the Ghost Radio, or the Congress Radio, was conceived to counter the British-controlled AIR.
    • Usha Mehta, a 22 YO master’s student at Wilson College, became the voice of the Congress Radio.
    • The radio was an expensive endeavour, but funds were procured through various means, including contributions from Mehta’s colleague, Babubhai Khakhar.
    • Radio engineering expert Nariman Abarbad Printer constructed the Congress Radio transmission set.
    • Their first broadcast was on 14 August 1942.
    • Welcome line in her voice: “This is the Congress Radio calling on 42.34 from somewhere in India.”
    • In the beginning, they were broadcasting twice a day, in Hindi and English. But they reduced it to just once in the evening between 30 and 8.30 pm.
    • On 12th November 1942, the police raided the radio while Vande Mataram was being played and arrested Mehta and others.

    PYQ:

    2011: With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for-

    1. Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
    2. Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
    3. Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
    4. Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

     

    2021: With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
    2. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
    3. The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
    4. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over

    Practice MCQ:

    In context to the Secret ‘Congress Radio’ in modern Indian history, consider the following statements:

    1. It was established to supplement the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930s.
    2. Usha Mehta was the voice of Congress Radio.
    3. It was broadcasted twice a day, in Hindi and English

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    Supreme Court forms panel for Great Indian Bustard Conservation

    Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

    Mains level: NA

    bustard

    What is the news?

    • The Supreme Court has taken a decisive step by forming an expert committee to address the pressing issue of conserving the endangered Great Indian Bustard.

    About Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

    • GIBs are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican, and the Bengal florican.
    • It is state bird of Rajasthan.
    • It is considered the flagship bird species of grassland.
    • Protection Status:
    1. Birdlife International: Uplisted from Endangered to Critically Endangered (2011)
    2. Protection under CITES: Appendix I
    3. IUCN status: Critically Endangered
    4. Protection under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I

    Threats to GIBs

    • Overhead power transmission: Due to their poor frontal vision, can’t detect powerlines in time and their weight makes in-flight quick maneuvers difficult.
    • Windmills: Coincidentally, Kutch and Thar desert are the places that have witnessed the creation of huge renewable energy infrastructure.
    • Noise pollution: Noise affects the mating and courtship practices of the GIB.
    • Changes in the landscape: by way of farmers cultivating their land, which otherwise used to remain fallow due to frequent droughts in Kutch.
    • Cultivation changes: Cultivation of cotton and wheat instead of pulses and fodder are also cited as reasons for falling GIB numbers.

    PYQ:

    2014: Consider the following pairs:

    Protected Area: Well-known for

    1. Bhitarkanika, Odisha — Salt Water Crocodile
    2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
    3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolock Gibbon

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

    1. It is the largest among the bustard species found in India.
    2. It is state bird of Rajasthan as well as Gujarat.
    3. It is considered the flagship bird species of deserts.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • Indian Navy Updates

    [pib] Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    Prelims Only | Security Issues | Mains Paper 3: Various Security Forces, Agencies & Their Mandates

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • INS Tir and INS Sujata are set to participate in the second edition of the India-Mozambique-Tanzania (IMT) Tri-Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise.

    Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    • It is a biennial exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
    • The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
    • It seeks to enhance India’s commitment to maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
    • Through this joint exercise, the Indian Navy aims to foster mutual trust and understanding with its maritime partners in Mozambique and Tanzania.

    Phases of the Exercise

    • Harbour Phase: Activities include joint harbour training such as Damage Control, Fire Fighting, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, Medical Lectures, Casualty Evacuation, and Diving operations.
    • Sea Phase: Focuses on countering asymmetric threats, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, boat handling, manoeuvres, firing exercises, and joint EEZ surveillance.

    PYQ:

    2017: Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

    1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
    2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about Exercise IMT TRILAT:

    1. It is an annual exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
    2. The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

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  • RBI Notifications

    RBI and SEBI: India’s Financial Landscape under Scrutiny

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Indian Economy

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: RBI, SEBI and their regulatory functions

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • Recent actions by both India’s banking regulator RBI and the securities watchdog SEBI have startled the market, exposing various malpractices in the financial sector.

    Context

    • Banking Sector: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) faces political scrutiny following the Supreme Court’s ban on anonymous political funding instruments introduced by the government in 2018. Its oversight was questioned amidst concerns about opaque corporate donations in the Electoral Bonds Scheme which was recently held unconstitutional.
    • Securities Market: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is under pressure to address concerns about asset price inflation, concentrated positions in illiquid shares, and excessive speculation among retail investors. Its credibility was questioned after Hindenburg Research’s allegations.

    Financial Landscape and its Regulation

    [1] Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

    • The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
    • It is established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    • Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
    • It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
    • RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
    • Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.

    Key Regulatory Functions of the RBI:

    (i) Monetary Policy:

    • The RBI formulates and implements monetary policies to achieve price stability, economic growth, and financial stability.
    • The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) determines the policy interest rates, such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and marginal standing facility rate, based on inflation targeting and growth objectives.
    • By adjusting these rates, the RBI influences money supply, credit flow, and interest rates in the economy.

    (ii) Banking Regulation and Supervision:

    • The RBI regulates and supervises banks and financial institutions to ensure their stability, soundness, and compliance with regulatory norms.
    • It issues guidelines, directives, and prudential regulations covering aspects like capital adequacy, asset quality, management effectiveness, and liquidity risk management.
    • The RBI conducts regular inspections, audits, and assessments of banks to assess their financial health and adherence to regulations.
    • It also intervenes in troubled banks to protect depositors’ interests and maintain financial stability.

    (iii) Payment and Settlement Systems:

    • The RBI manages and oversees payment and settlement systems to ensure efficiency, safety, and reliability in financial transactions.
    • It operates the Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system for large-value transactions and the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system for retail transactions.
    • The RBI formulates regulations and standards for payment systems, promotes innovation in payment technologies, and monitors systemically important payment infrastructures to mitigate risks and enhance resilience.

    (iv) Financial Markets Regulation:

    • The RBI regulates and supervises financial markets, including money, bonds, foreign exchange, and derivative markets, to maintain market integrity and investor confidence.
    • It issues guidelines, directives, and regulations governing market participants, intermediaries, and trading activities.
    • The RBI monitors market developments, enforces compliance with regulations, and intervenes in markets to address disorderly conditions, liquidity shortages, or excessive volatility.
    • It also conducts open market operations (OMOs) to manage liquidity and stabilize interest rates.

    [2] Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

    • SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
    • Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
    • It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
    • SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
    • Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.

    Key Regulatory Functions of the SEBI:

    (i) Formulating Regulations:

    • SEBI formulates regulations, guidelines, and directives to govern various aspects of the securities market.
    • This includes regulations related to public issuances, disclosures, insider trading, takeover bids, corporate governance, and investor protection.

    (ii) Monitoring Market Participants:

    • SEBI regulates and supervises market intermediaries such as stock exchanges, brokers, merchant bankers, portfolio managers, and mutual funds.
    • It sets eligibility criteria, registration requirements, and conduct norms for these entities and monitors their compliance with regulations.

    (iii) Overseeing Market Infrastructure:

    • SEBI oversees the functioning of stock exchanges, clearing corporations, depositories, and other market infrastructure institutions.
    • It ensures that these entities maintain adequate systems, procedures, and safeguards to facilitate fair, transparent, and efficient trading and settlement operations.

    (iv) Enforcing Securities Laws:

    • SEBI enforces securities laws and regulations by conducting inspections, investigations, and enforcement actions against violations.
    • It has the authority to impose penalties, suspend licenses, and initiate legal proceedings against individuals or entities found to be engaged in fraudulent or unfair practices.

    (v) Regulating Securities Offerings:

    • SEBI regulates public offerings of securities, including initial public offerings (IPOs), rights issues, and follow-on public offerings.
    • It reviews offer documents, ensures disclosure of material information to investors, and supervises the conduct of issuers, underwriters, and other intermediaries involved in the offering process.

    (vi) Monitoring Insider Trading and Market Manipulation:

    • SEBI monitors and regulates insider trading, market manipulation, and other fraudulent activities that can undermine market integrity.
    • It prohibits insider trading, imposes restrictions on share buybacks and open market operations, and investigates suspicious trading activities to maintain market fairness and transparency.

    PYQ:

     

    2015: In the light of Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in the corporate governance to ensure transparency and accountability.

     

    2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:​

    1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.​
    2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. ​
    3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. ​

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?​

    1. 1 only ​
    2. 1 and 2 only ​
    3. 3 only ​
    4. 2 and 3 only ​

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:

    1. It was established in 1988 as a non-statutory body.
    2. It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
    3. It consists of a chairman, members from the Union Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • LGBT Rights – Transgender Bill, Sec. 377, etc.

    No Counseling to LGBTQ+ Persons against their Own Identity: Supreme Court

    Prelims OnlySC Judgements | Indian Society | Mains Paper 1: Salient features of Indian Society

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Section 377, LGBTQ+ Rights

    Mains level: Sexual Minorities and their Social Rights

    Why in the news-

    • The Supreme Court issued a cautionary directive to judges regarding court-ordered counselling for LGBTQ+ individuals, emphasizing the need to respect their identity and sexual orientation.

    Context

     

    • Petition: The verdict stemmed from a habeas corpus petition filed by a Kerala-based woman seeking the whereabouts of her same-sex partner, highlighting the challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals in asserting their rights.
    • Coercion Concerns: Concerns were raised about court-ordered counselling potentially being used to coerce individuals against their sexual orientation or chosen partners, prompting the Supreme Court to address these apprehensions.

     

    Counselling to LGBTQ+ Persons: 

    [A] Guidelines and Observations

    • Avoiding Identity Suppression: Judges were cautioned against using counselling as a tool to coerce individuals into rejecting their LGBTQ+ identity or relationships, particularly when they are in distress or facing familial separation.
    • Upholding Constitutional Values: CJI underscored the importance of upholding constitutional values, urging judges to refrain from imposing their personal biases or societal prejudices during legal proceedings.
    • Empathy and Compassion: The verdict emphasized that judges must demonstrate sincere empathy and compassion towards LGBTQ+ individuals, ensuring that the principles of justice and equality guide legal decisions.

    [B] Guidelines for Courts

    • Embracing Diversity: Courts were directed to eschew social morality influenced by homophobic or transphobic views, prioritizing the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
    • Respecting Chosen Families: Acknowledging the significance of chosen families for LGBTQ+ individuals, the court highlighted the need to recognize and respect these relationships, especially in cases involving familial rejection or violence.

    LGBTQ+ Persons (Sexual Minority) Rights in India: An Overview

    • Decriminalization of Homosexuality: A watershed moment occurred on September 6, 2018, when the Supreme Court of India partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized consensual same-sex relationships. This historic decision marked a crucial step towards recognizing the dignity and autonomy of LGBTQ+ individuals.
    • Recognition of Transgender Rights: In 2014, the Supreme Court recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution in the landmark case of National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014). This judgment laid the foundation for legal recognition and protection of transgender rights in India.

    Several key legal cases and judgments have shaped the evolution of LGBTQ rights in India:

    1. Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi (2009): The Delhi High Court ruled that Section 377 of the IPC violated fundamental rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution, including privacy and equality. This judgment was a crucial step forward in recognizing the rights of LGBTQ individuals.
    2. Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation (2013): The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court’s judgment, recriminalizing homosexuality. This decision was met with widespread criticism and sparked renewed activism for LGBTQ rights in India.
    3. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014): This landmark judgment recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution. It laid the groundwork for ensuring equality and non-discrimination for the transgender community.
    4. K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017): This case affirmed the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. The judgment recognized that discrimination based on sexual orientation is unconstitutional and emphasized the dignity and autonomy of individuals.
    5. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court decriminalized homosexuality and struck down Section 377 of the IPC. The court recognized the rights of LGBTQ individuals to intimacy, autonomy, and identity, setting a precedent for equality and non-discrimination.

    Future Prospects 

    [A] Extension of ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology) Rights  

    • The Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Rights bill, as currently formulated, does not adequately extend to LGBTQ+ persons due to several factors:
    1. Definition of Commissioning Couple: It restricts access to ART services to “infertile married couples,” excluding same-sex couples and individuals in same-sex relationships.
    2. Requirement of Legal Marriage: Since same-sex marriage isn’t recognized in India, LGBTQ+ couples are automatically excluded from accessing ART services.
    3. Narrow Definition of Infertility: The bill’s definition overlooks the unique reproductive challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals and couples.
    4. Gender-Binary Language and Restrictions: Gender-binary language and restrictions exclude transgender and gender non-conforming individuals from accessing ART services.
    5. Lack of Recognition of Diverse Identities: The bill fails to accommodate the diverse identities within the LGBTQ+ community, neglecting their specific needs and concerns regarding assisted reproduction.

    [B] Child Adoption 

    • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): It had opposed the adoption rights of same-sex couples.
    • Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (JJ Act): It allows heterosexual married couples, and single and divorced persons to adopt.
    • Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (HAMA): It permits any male or female Hindu of sound mind to adopt, and for couples to adopt with the consent of their spouse.
    • Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA): It permits applications from adoptive parents in live-in relationships, which it examines on a case-to-case basis.

    However, in October 2023 the Supreme Court ruled that Regulation 5(3) of the CARA Regulations, insofar as it prohibited unmarried and queer couples from adopting, violated Article 15 of the Constitution.

    While India’s Supreme Court declined to legalise same-sex marriage and did not explicitly grant gay couples adoption rights.

     

    PYQ:

    2020: Customs and traditions suppress reason leading to obscurantism. Do you agree?

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code which sought to decriminalize homosexuality was struck down in the landmark case of-

    1. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
    2. Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi
    3. Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation
    4. None of these

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  • Start-up Ecosystem In India

    NABARD to launch ₹1000-crore Blended Fund for Agri-Startups

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Agriculture and related issues

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Agri-Startups, NABARD

    Mains level: NA

    What is the news –

    • The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is set to launch a ₹1,000-crore fund to bolster technology-driven agri-startups and rural enterprises.
    • NABARD has already established a ₹750-crore fund, which will be followed by another ₹1,000 crore, to support startups in this regard.

    What are Agri-Startups?

    • Agri-startups are entrepreneurial ventures focused on innovating and revolutionizing various aspects of agriculture and allied sectors.
    • These startups leverage technology, data, and modern farming practices to address challenges in the agricultural value chain and promote sustainable farming practices.
    • They offer a wide range of products and services aimed at improving productivity, efficiency, and profitability for farmers, as well as enhancing food quality and safety for consumers.

    Key areas of innovation in agri-startups include:

    1. Precision Agriculture: Utilizing data-driven technologies such as IoT, drones, and satellite imagery for precision farming, soil health monitoring, crop monitoring, and yield optimization.
    2. Agritech Solutions: Developing innovative technologies and tools for pest and disease management, water management, greenhouse farming, and hydroponics.
    3. Farm Management Software: Providing digital platforms and mobile applications for farm management, crop planning, inventory management, and market intelligence.
    4. Agri-Marketing Platforms: Connecting farmers directly with buyers, retailers, and consumers through online marketplaces, e-commerce platforms, and farm-to-fork initiatives.
    5. Supply Chain Management: Streamlining logistics, transportation, and warehousing operations to reduce post-harvest losses, improve market access, and ensure traceability and transparency in the supply chain.
    6. Food Processing: Developing value-added products, food processing technologies, and packaging solutions to enhance the shelf life, nutritional value, and marketability of agricultural produce.

     About NABARD

     

    • NABARD was established on July 12, 1982, by an Act of Parliament to promote sustainable rural development and agricultural growth in India.
    • It operates as a statutory body under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, with its headquarters located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
    • It was established on the recommendation of the Sivaraman Committee and has its headquarters in Mumbai.
    • Its primary mission is to facilitate credit flow for promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts.
    • It is governed by a Board of Directors appointed by the GoI, with (1) representatives from the RBI, (2) central and state governments, and (3) experts in various fields related to rural development and finance.

     

    Functions of NABARD:

     

    1. Refinance Support: NABARD provides refinance facilities to banks and financial institutions for agricultural and rural development activities, including crop loans and rural infrastructure projects.
    2. Direct Lending: It extends direct loans to institutions for specific rural development projects, such as agricultural production, rural infrastructure development, and agri-processing units.
    3. Research and Training: NABARD promotes research and development in agriculture, supports capacity building and training programs for rural stakeholders, and facilitates technology transfer initiatives.
    4. Scheme Implementation: The organization administers government schemes and funds like Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), Watershed Development Fund (WDF) to finance rural infrastructure projects and watershed development activities.
    5. Credit Planning: NABARD collaborates with central and state governments, RBI, and other stakeholders to formulate credit policies and plans for agriculture and rural sectors.
    6. Financial Inclusion: It promotes financial inclusion by expanding banking services in rural areas, supporting SHGs, FPOs, and MFIs, and facilitating access to credit for rural communities.
    7. Priority Sector Lending: NABARD plays a crucial role in channelling credit to priority sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries, and rural infrastructure, in alignment with the Reserve Bank of India’s priority sector lending guidelines.

     

    About the Blended Fund for Agri-Startups

    • In the budget for FY23, plans for a blended capital fund were announced for ‘Sunrise Sectors’ to finance startups for agriculture and rural enterprises.
    • The fund aims to support startups facing challenges in scaling up their operations due to limited access to equity and debt instruments.
    • It also seeks to foster new linkages in the rural ecosystem, both forward and backwards.

    Other Schemes for Agri-Startups in India

     

    1. Agriculture Accelerator Fund (2023): It was announced by Finance Minister in the union budget for 2023-24, as a significant initiative designed to support agritech startups and young entrepreneurs hailing from rural areas.
    2. Innovation and Agri-Entrepreneurship Development Program (2018-19): To increase farmers’ income, GOI started this Program under the umbrella of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (2007). Startups receive financial assistance at different stages, with Rs. 5.00 lakh at the idea/pre-seed stage and Rs. 25 lakh at the seed stage.

     

    PYQ:

    Q.Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to: (2012)

    1. Agriculture
    2. Micro and small enterprises
    3. Weaker sections
    4. All of the above

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  • Tobacco: The Silent Killer

    In news: Tobacco Board  

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Major Crops & Cropping Patterns

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Tobacco Board, Tobacco Crop, Flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    • The Tobacco Board has authorised a crop size of 100 million kg for Karnataka during the year 2024-25.

    Tobacco in Indian Economy

     

    • It is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop which can be grown on soils where other crops cannot be cultivated profitably.
    • In India, Tobacco crop is grown in an area of 0.45 M ha (0.27% of the net cultivated area) producing ~ 750 M kg of tobacco leaf.
    • India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively.
    • The production of flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is about 300 million kg from an area of 0.20 M ha while 450 M kg non-FCV tobacco is produced from an area of 0.25 M ha.
    • In the global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production.

     About Tobacco Board 

    • The Tobacco Board was constituted as a Statutory Body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.
    • It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    • It is headquartered in Guntur, Andhra Pradesh.

    The primary objective of the Tobacco Board is-

    • To promote the orderly development of the tobacco industry in India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, which are the major tobacco-growing regions in the country.

    Key Functions and Responsibilities  

    1. Regulation and Control: The Tobacco Board regulates the production, curing, grading, and marketing of Virginia tobacco, which includes Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) and Burley tobacco varieties.
    2. Licensing and Registration: It monitors and issues licenses and registrations to tobacco growers, manufacturers, exporters, and dealers involved in various stages of the tobacco supply chain.
    3. Research and Development: It collaborates with agricultural research institutes, universities, and industry stakeholders to introduce new technologies, best practices, and crop varieties to enhance the productivity and profitability of tobacco farming.
    4. Market Promotion: It promotes Indian tobacco products in domestic and international markets through trade fairs, exhibitions, buyer-seller meets, and promotional campaigns.
    5. Price Stabilization: It intervenes in the market to stabilize prices, mitigate price fluctuations, and protect the interests of farmers against adverse market conditions.
    6. Quality Control and Grading: It operates grading centers and quality testing laboratories to assess the quality characteristics of tobacco and facilitate fair trade practices in the industry.

    PYQ:

    Q.With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

    1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
    2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
    3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
    4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

    Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 4

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements regarding the cultivation of Tobacco in India:

    1. Tobacco is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop.
    2. India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively
    3. In the global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • Climate Change Impact on India and World – International Reports, Key Observations, etc.

    Insights from the WMO’s State of the Climate Report, 2023

    IOCRPrelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: State of the Climate Report, 2023, Key Highlights

    Mains level: Surging impact of Climate Change

    What is the news-

    • The World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) recent State of the Climate report highlights unprecedented climatic shifts, with numerous indicators reaching record levels.

    About World Meteorological Organization

    • It is an intergovernmental organization and a specialized agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
    • It was established in 1950 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
    • It origin traces to the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in 1873.
    • Currently it has a membership of 191 countries. India is also a member.

    Key Highlights of the State of the Climate Report, 2023

    [1] Greenhouse Gases (GHGs)

    • Record-High Concentrations: GHGs like carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide reached record levels in 2022, contributing to global warming. The concentration of GHGs observed in 2022 is the latest year for which consolidated global values are available (1984–2022).
    • Long-term Trend: The rise in GHG concentrations underscores the urgent need for concerted efforts to mitigate their impact.

    [2] Surface Temperature

    • Historic Spike: Global surface temperatures in 2023 surged to 1.45 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, marking the highest recorded temperature. This temperature rise is attributed to the combined effects of rising GHG concentrations and the onset of El Nino in 2023.
    • El Nino Influence: The onset of El Nino exacerbated temperature extremes globally, amplifying the impacts of climate change.

    [3] Ocean Heat Content (OHC)

    • Unprecedented Heat: Ocean heat content reached its highest level in the observational record of 2023. The ocean heat content (OHC) refers to the total amount of heat the oceans store.
    • Long-term Trend: The continual increase in OHC underscores the ongoing challenge of ocean warming and its implications for marine ecosystems.

    [4] Marine Heat Waves (MHWs)

    • Widespread Occurrence: The global ocean experienced a significant increase in marine heatwave (MHW) coverage in 2023. The average daily marine heatwave coverage reached 32%, surpassing previous records set in 2016.
    • Duration and Intensity: Prolonged MHWs pose threats to marine biodiversity, ecosystems, and fisheries, highlighting the urgency of climate action.

    [5] Antarctic Sea-Ice Extent

    • Record Low: Antarctic sea-ice extent plummeted to 1.79 million km2 in February 2023, the lowest since satellite observations began in 1979. The extent remained below average throughout the year, signalling ongoing trends of sea-ice loss in the Antarctic region.
    • Persistent Decline: The continued decline in Antarctic sea-ice extent underscores the vulnerability of Polar Regions to climate change.

    [6] Glacier Mass Balance

    • Unprecedented Loss: Glaciers worldwide experienced the largest annual loss of ice on record in 2022-2023. The annual mass balance, which measures the amount of mass gained or lost by glaciers, dropped to a new low of ‘–1.2 metre water equivalent’.
    • Regional Disparities: Glacial mass balance varied across regions, with North American and European glaciers particularly affected by ice loss.

    Significance of the report

    • The figures presented in the WMO report underscore the magnitude of climate change impacts on various Earth systems.
    • Urgent action is needed to address rising GHG emissions, mitigate temperature extremes, protect marine environments, and preserve critical cryospheric regions.

    PYQ:

    2018: “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

    1. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
    2. The UNEP Secretariat
    3. The UNFCCC Secretariat
    4. The World Meteorological Organisation

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  • Freedom of Speech – Defamation, Sedition, etc.

    PIB’s Fact Check Unit: Combating Misinformation in India

    PIBPrelims Only | Governance | Mains Paper 2: Governance, Transparency & Accountability, Citizens Charters

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Fact Check Unit (FCU) and its Functions

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news-

    • Weeks ahead of the election, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology on Wednesday notified the Press Information Bureau’s Fact Check Unit (FCU) as the designated body to flag misinformation about Central government departments to social media platforms.

    Why PIB?

     

    • Under the GoI (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) is entrusted with the responsibility of disseminating information about government policies, schemes, and programs through various mediums of communication.
    • In fulfilling its role, the Ministry publicizes the policies, initiatives, schemes, and programs of the Government of India through press releases, press conferences, webinars, publication of books, etc.
    • To carry out this crucial function, the Ministry has several attached and subordinate offices, including the Press Information Bureau (PIB).

    What is Fact Check Unit (FCU)?

    • The Fact Check Unit’s mandate arises from the IT Rules, 2021, which stipulate that social media platforms risk losing legal liability protections if they fail to address notified misinformation promptly.
    • The unit verifies claims about government policies, regulations, announcements and measures.
    • Through an established rigorous fact-checking procedure, the PIB Fact Check Unit helps in dispelling myths, rumours and false claims, and provides accurate and reliable information to the public.

    Operational Framework

    • The FCU, led by senior DG/ADG level officer of the Indian Information Service (IIS), operates under the supervision of the Principal Director General of PIB.
    • Its mandate includes verifying claims related to government policies, regulations, and announcements through a rigorous fact-checking process.
    • The Unit reports to the Principal Director General, PIB who functions as the Principal Spokesperson of the Government of India.

    Fact-Check Mechanism

    • Query Handling: Users submit requests via WhatsApp, email, or a web portal, which are processed as ‘Queries’ by the Unit.
    • Verification Process: Actionable Queries relevant to the Government of India undergo thorough verification using official sources and technological tools.
    • Publication of Fact Checks: Verified information is categorized as Fake, Misleading, or True, and published on the Unit’s social media platforms for public awareness.

    Categories of Fact-Checked Content

    1. Fake: Factually incorrect information intentionally or unintentionally disseminated to deceive or manipulate the audience.
    2. Misleading: Information presented with partial truths, selective facts, or distortion to mislead recipients.
    3. True: Information verified to be factually accurate after rigorous investigation.

    PYQ:

    2017: Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity-

    1. The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
    2. The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
    3. A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
    4. A band of dedicated party workers.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    The centre has recently established the Fact Check Unit (FCU) as a designated body to flag misinformation in India. In this regard, consider the following statements:

    1. Establishment of FCU is mandated under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
    2. The FCU is led by an officer of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IAAS).

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

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  • Air Pollution

    Highlights of the World Air Quality Report, 2023

    Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: World Air Quality Report, Particulate Matters

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • India has been ranked as the third-most polluted country in 2023, following Bangladesh and Pakistan, according to the ‘World Air Quality Report 2023’ by IQAir.
    • IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company, specializing in protection against airborne pollutants, developing air quality monitoring and air cleaning products

    Comparative Analysis

     

    • Previous Rankings: In 2022, India held the eighth position among the most polluted countries with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic meter, demonstrating a marginal increase in pollution levels.
    • Global Rankings: The report ranked 42 Indian cities among the top 50 most polluted cities globally, with Begusarai, Guwahati, and Delhi leading the list.

    Key Highlights

    (A)  Most Polluted Indian Cities:

    • Ten out of the top 11 most polluted cities in the world are from India, the other being Lahore in Pakistan.
    • Begusarai, located in Bihar, witnessed a significant increase in PM 2.5 concentration from 19.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023.
    • Guwahati’s PM2.5 concentration doubled from 51 to 105.4 micrograms per cubic meter between 2022 and 2023.
    • Delhi saw an increase in PM2.5 concentration from 89.1 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic meter over the same period.
    • Other Indian cities featuring in the top 50 most polluted cities of the world list included Greater Noida (11), Muzzafarnagar (16), Gurgaon (17), Arrah (18), Dadri (19), Patna (20), Faridabad (25), Noida (26), Meerut (28), Ghaziabad (35) and Rohtak (47).

    (B) Global Insights:

    • Oceania—comprising Australia, New Zealand, and French Polynesia—remained the region with the cleanest air in 2023.
    • The report highlighted the top five most polluted countries worldwide, including Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Tajikistan, and Burkina Faso.
    • Seven countries which met the WHO annual PM2.5 guideline (annual average of 5 Âľg/m3 or less) included Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius, and New Zealand.
    • Despite previous declines, China experienced a 6.3% increase in PM2.5 concentration in 2023, signalling a concerning trend.
    • For the first time, Canada emerged as the most polluted country in Northern America, reflecting regional air quality challenges.
    • Africa remains the most underrepresented continent, with a third of the population still lacking access to air quality data.

    What are Particulate Matters (PM)?

     

    • Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in the air.
    • These particles come from various sources, including vehicle emissions, industrial processes, construction activities, agricultural activities, wildfires, and natural dust.
    • PM can be classified into different size categories based on its aerodynamic diameter.
    • Common size fractions include PM10 (particles with a diameter of 10 micrometres or smaller) and PM2.5 (particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller).
    • PM 2.5 are so small that they can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
    • Long-term exposure to elevated levels of PM2.5 has been linked to reduced lung function, aggravated asthma, and increased risk of heart attacks and strokes.

    PYQ:

    Q.Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three Mega cities of the country but the air pollution is much more serious problem in Delhi as compared to the other two. Why is this so? (2015)

     

    Q.In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (2016)

    1. Carbon dioxide
    2. Carbon monoxide
    3. Nitrogen dioxide
    4. Sulphur dioxide
    5. Methane

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 4 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles as well as liquid droplets suspended in the air.
    2. PM 2.5 can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
    3. Natural dust does not contribute to PM.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • Digital India Initiatives

    [pib] Government e Marketplace (GeM)  

    Prelims Only | Governance | Mains Paper 2: Governance, Transparency & Accountability, Citizens Charters

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Government e Marketplace (GeM)

    Mains level: NA

    gem

    Why in the news-

    • The government’s procurement portal, GeM (Government e-Marketplace), is looking to encourage more and more start-ups and small and micro enterprises to list themselves as sellers.

    About Government e-Marketplace (GeM) 

    • The GeM is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government Departments / Organizations / PSUs.
    • It was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    • It has been developed by the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (under MCI) with technical support from the National e-governance Division (MEITy).

    Functions for GeM

    • Enhancement of Public Procurement: GeM aims to enhance transparency, efficiency, and speed in public procurement processes.
    • Paperless and Cashless Transactions: It is a completely paperless, cashless, and system-driven e-marketplace that enables procurement of common-use goods and services with minimal human interface.
    • Facilitation of Best Value: GeM provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse e-auction, and demand aggregation to facilitate government users in achieving the best value for their money.
    • Mandatory Purchases by Government Users: The purchases through GeM by Government users have been authorized and made mandatory by the Ministry of Finance by adding a new Rule No. 149 in the General Financial Rules, 2017.

    Key Developments on GeM:

    • GeM Outlet Stores: GeM has introduced outlet stores for various product categories like SARAS, Ajeevika, Tribes India, Startup Runway, Khadi India, India Handloom, India Handicraft, Divyangjan, etc.
    • Bamboo Market Window: GeM, in collaboration with the National Bamboo Mission, has introduced a dedicated window on its portal for marketing Bamboo Goods.
    • Country of Origin Tag: Since 2020, the government has made it mandatory for sellers on the GeM portal to clarify the country of origin of their goods when registering new products.

    PYQ:

    Q.‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2016) –

    1. Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
    2. Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
    3. Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
    4. Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), consider the following statements:

    1. It is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal launched in 2016.
    2. It is developed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)

    Select the correct option:

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

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  • Intellectual Property Rights in India

    Passing Off under Trademark Rules

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Intellectual Property Rights

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Trademarks, Patents

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news?

    • A lady in New Delhi successfully obtained trademark for her Momos brand from New Delhi High Court, after a similar trademark infringed upon her rights and reputation.
    • The lady’s legal action invoked ‘passing off’ provisions, seeking cancellation of the infringers’ trademark under relevant sections of the Trademarks Act.

    What are Trademarks?

    • A trademark is a symbol, design, word, or phrase that is identified with a business. Registering a trademark allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage.
    • The Trademarks Act of 1999 governs the regime of trademarks and their registration in India.
    • It guarantees protection for trademarks registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
    • According to Section 25 of the 1999 Act, once registered, a trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.

    Concept of ‘Passing Off’

    • ‘Passing off’ entails deceptive practices where one brand attempts to profit from the reputation of another through misrepresentation.
    • In Cadila Healthcare Limited vs. Cadila Pharmaceuticals Limited (2001), the Supreme Court defined passing-off as a form of unfair trade competition, where one brand seeks to profit from the established reputation of another through deceptive means.
    • Infringed parties can seek injunctions, damages, or accounts against the infringing entity to mitigate the damages caused.

    Application in the Present Case: Grounds for Trademark Refusal

    • Legal Provisions: Sections 11(1), 11(2), 11(3)(a), and 47 of the Trademarks Act outline grounds for refusal to register trademarks and provisions for removal from the register.
    • Likelihood of Confusion: Trademarks resembling earlier trademarks, leading to public confusion, are ineligible for registration under Section 11(1).
    • Protection of Distinctive Marks: Section 11(2) prohibits registration of marks that take unfair advantage of or harm the reputation of well-known trademarks.
    • Non-Compliance and Non-Usage: Section 47 allows removal of trademarks from the register for non-compliance or non-use, subject to aggrieved parties’ applications.

    Back2Basics: Trademarks vs. Patents

    Trademark Patent
    Purpose Identify and distinguish goods or services Protect new and inventive products or processes
    Laws and Provisions Trademarks Act, 1999 Patents Act, 1970
    Subject Matter Signs like logos, brand names, slogans, packaging Inventions including products, processes, methods
    Duration of Protection 10 years.

    Indefinite with periodic renewal

    		 Typically 20 years from the filing date
    Registration Process File application with Trademarks Registry (i.e. Controller General of Patents) File application with Indian Patent Office
    Rights Granted Exclusive use of the trademark in connection with goods or services Exclusive rights to exploit the invention commercially

     

    PYQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
    2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
    3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to Trademarks in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Trademark can be a symbol, design, word or even a phrase.
    2. It allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage
    3. It is valid for 5 years.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    [pib] Exercise Tiger Triumph-24

    Prelims Only | Security Issues | Mains Paper 3: Various Security Forces, Agencies & Their Mandates

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Exercise Tiger Triumph-24

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news

    • The third edition of the bilateral tri-service ‘Exercise Tiger Triumph– 24’ between India and the US will be held on the Eastern Seaboard in the US from March 18 to 31.

    Exercise Tiger Triumph-24

    • The primary aim of this exercise is to enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the US military for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.
    • It is being held since 2019. The second edition was conducted in 2022.
    • The exercise focuses on refining Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries during HADR operations.
    • Participants include:
    1. Indian Navy: Ships with integral helicopters and landing crafts, navy aircraft, Indian Army personnel and vehicles, Indian Air Force aircraft and helicopters, and the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT).
    2. US Military: US Navy ships with embarked troops from the US Marine Corps and US Army.
    • Indian and US naval assets, along with troops and equipment, are deployed for the Sea Phase after the harbor phase.

    All Major Defence Exercises between India and the US

    • Yudh Abhyas: Yudh Abhyas is an annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in counterterrorism and counterinsurgency operations.
    • Malabar Exercise: Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the United States, India, and Japan. It aims to improve interoperability in maritime security, anti-submarine warfare, and disaster response.
    • Cope India: Cope India is an air force exercise between the Indian Air Force and the United States Air Force. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in aerial combat tactics, techniques, and procedures.
    • Vajra Prahar: Vajra Prahar is a bilateral Special Forces exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army. It focuses on counterterrorism operations, hostage rescue, and other special operations.
    • Red Flag Exercise: While not exclusively a bilateral exercise between India and the US, the Red Flag Exercise hosted by the United States Air Force at Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada often includes participation from the Indian Air Force. This exercise focuses on advanced aerial combat training and tactics.

    Significance of the Exercise

    • Strengthening Bilateral Ties: The exercise serves to strengthen the strategic partnership and cooperation between India and the United States.
    • Preparedness: Both countries aim to enhance their readiness and capabilities to respond to humanitarian crises and natural disasters effectively.
    • Cooperation: The exercise underscores the commitment of India and the US to international peace and security by collaborating on humanitarian missions.

    Practice MCQ:

    How many of the given are joint defence exercises between India and the US?

    1. Yudh Abhyas
    2. Malabar
    3. Cope India
    4. Vajra Prahar
    5. Mitra Shakti
    6. Garuda Shakti

    Select the correct option:

    1. Two
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five

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  • Animal Husbandry, Dairy & Fisheries Sector – Pashudhan Sanjivani, E- Pashudhan Haat, etc

    Foot and Mouth Diseases in Cattles

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Agriculture and related issues

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)

    Mains level: NA

    fmd

    Why in the news

    • The foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has affected around many milch cattle in Uttar Pradesh.

    What is Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)?

    • FMD is a highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant economic impact.
    • The disease affects all cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
    • Intensively reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
    • It does not affect horses, dogs, or cats.

    How does it spread?

    • It is a Transboundary Animal Disease (TAD) that deeply affects the production of livestock and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
    • It is caused by is an ‘aphthovirus’ of the family Picornaviridae.
    • There are 7 strains (A, O, C, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, and Asia1) which are endemic in different countries worldwide.
    • Immunity to one type does not protect an animal against other types or subtypes.

    Implications of FMD

    • FMD is characterized by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips, in the mouth, on the teats, and between the hooves.
    • The disease is rarely fatal in adult animals, but there is often high mortality in young animals.
    • The disease causes severe production losses, and while the majority of affected animals recover, the disease often leaves them weakened and debilitated.

    Policy moves to prevent FMD

    • FMD Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (2016-17): Launched under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) during, it is a program to cover all the states which were not covered under the six-monthly vaccination scheme.
    • National Animal Disease Control Programme (2019): It aims to control of Foot & Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100% cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig population for FMD and 100% bovine female calves of 4-8 months of age for brucellosis.

    PYQ:

    Q. Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non- farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India. (2015)

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the National Animal Disease Control Programme, consider the following statements:

    1. It aims to control of Foot & Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100% cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig population.
    2. For brucellosis it would vaccinate 100% bovine calves of all age.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

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  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    Multi-purpose app SAKHI to assist Gaganyaan Crew

    Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: SAKHI App, Progress tracking of Gaganyaan Mission.

    Mains level: Not Much

    What is the news-

    • The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), an ISRO facility located at Thumba in Thiruvananthapuram, has developed a multi-purpose app ‘SAKHI’ to assist Gaganyaan Crew.

    About SAKHI

    • The Space-borne Assistant and Knowledge Hub for Crew Interaction (SAKHI) is equipped to monitor astronauts’ health, maintain communication with Earth, and manage dietary schedules.
    • It serves as an essential tool for the crew, offering real-time assistance and access to necessary data.
    • It would assist astronauts during the Gaganyaan space flight mission, facilitating tasks such as accessing vital technical information and communication.
    • Strapped to astronauts’ space suits, it allows for easy access and facilitates the maintenance of mission logs in various formats.

    Utility offered by SAKHI

    • Health Monitoring: SAKHI provides comprehensive health monitoring, including parameters like blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation. It also reminds astronauts about hydration, dietary schedules, and sleep patterns, enhancing their mission efficiency.
    • Communication: SAKHI maintains communication between the crew, onboard computers, and ground-based stations, ensuring seamless connectivity.

    Gaganyaan Mission Timeline:

    • ISRO aims to launch the Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission in 2025.
    • The identities of the four astronaut-designates, all IAF test pilots, were revealed at a high-profile event attended by PM at the VSSC on February 27.
    • The final crew for the mission will be selected from among the four astronaut-designates.

    Also read:

    4 IAF Gaganyaan Astronaut-designates named

     

    PYQ:

    Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe? (2012)

    1. Detection of microwaves in space
    2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
    3. Movement of asteroids in space
    4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. None of the above can be cited as evidence

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  • Climate Change Impact on India and World – International Reports, Key Observations, etc.

    [pib] Mission LiFE

    Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Mission LiFE

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news-

    • Recently an EIACP Event (Environment Information, awareness, capacity building and livelihood Programme) was held on the ‘Mission Life’.

    About Mission LiFE

    • Mission LiFE, or Lifestyle for Environment, is a global mass movement initiated by India to encourage individual and community action towards environmental protection and preservation.
    • It was inaugurated by the PM Modi at the 26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.
    • The program aims to mobilize one billion Indians and individuals worldwide to adopt sustainable lifestyles.

    Salient Features of Mission LiFE

    • It serves as a platform to showcase sustainable goals and climate actions implemented by countries and individuals globally.
    • It aligns with the P3 model, promoting Pro Planet People and fostering a sense of collective responsibility.
    • It operates based on the principles of ‘Lifestyle of the planet, for the planet, and by the planet’.

    Strategy of Mission LiFE

    • Mission LiFE adopts a three-pronged strategy to shift people’s collective approach towards sustainability:
      1. Nudging individuals to practice simple yet effective environment-friendly actions in their daily lives (demand).
      2. Enabling industries and markets to respond swiftly to the changing demand (supply).
      3. Influencing government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production (policy).

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Mission LiFE, consider the following statements:

    1. It is a mass movement initiated by India to encourage individual and community action towards environmental protection and preservation.
    2. It was inaugurated at the UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

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  • Innovations in Sciences, IT, Computers, Robotics and Nanotechnology

    7 Ghost Particles pierce through Earth: IceCube Observations

    Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Neutrinos, IceCube Observatory, Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO), Trident

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news

    • Researchers at the IceCube Observatory, buried beneath the Antarctic ice, have identified seven potential instances of elusive “Ghost Particles” or astrophysical Tau Neutrinos as they penetrated through Earth.
    • These neutrinos are pivotal for understanding the cosmic exchanges between Earth and the vast universe.

    What are Neutrinos?

    • Neutrinos, often referred to as “ghost particles,” are subatomic particles characterized by their nearly zero mass and lack of electric charge.
    • They traverse through matter with minimal interaction, making their detection extremely challenging.
    • Previously believed to be massless, evidence has emerged indicating that neutrinos possess a very small mass.
    • Neutrinos rank among the most abundant particles in the universe.
    • While neutrinos and electrons behave similarly in terms of nuclear forces, neither of them engages in strong nuclear interactions.
    • However, both participate in weak nuclear interactions.
    • Neutrinos are produced during events such as nuclear fusion in stars like the Sun or nuclear fission in reactors.

    Properties of Neutrinos

    Electric Charge Electrically Neutral
    Mass Extremely Low (Exact Masses Not Known)
    Types Electron Neutrino, Muon Neutrino, Tau Neutrino
    Interaction Weak Interaction
    Speed Close to the Speed of Light
    Spin Fermion, Half-Integer Spin
    Neutrino Oscillations Neutrinos Change Flavor during Travel
    Interactions Very Weak Interaction with Matter
    Abundance Among the Most Abundant Particles in the Universe
    Cosmic Messengers Can Carry Information from Distant Cosmic Sources

     

    Why Neutrinos are termed “Ghost Particles”?

     

    • The weak charge and almost imperceptible mass of neutrinos render them exceedingly difficult for scientists’ to detect directly.
    • Due to their rare interactions with other particles, tracking neutrinos proves nearly impossible.

    Significance of Neutrino Detection

    • The origins of the abundant neutrino particles remain largely unknown to scientists.
    • There’s a hypothesis suggesting their potential role in the early universe shortly after the Big Bang, yet concrete evidence remains elusive.
    • Understanding neutrinos better holds the promise of unraveling numerous scientific phenomena, including the mysterious origins of cosmic rays, which neutrinos are known to carry.
    • Researchers anticipate that pinpointing the source of neutrinos will aid in explaining the origins of cosmic rays, a puzzle that has perplexed scientists for centuries.

    About IceCube Observatory

    icecube

    • Location: The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is situated near the Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica.
    • Components:
    1. IceCube: The primary detector consists of 5,160 digital optical modules (DOMs) attached to vertical strings frozen into the ice.
    2. IceTop: Located on top of IceCube strings, it serves as a veto and calibration detector for cosmic rays.
    3. DeepCore: A denser subdetector within IceCube that lowers the neutrino energy threshold for studying neutrino oscillations.
    • Construction:
    1. Completed in December 2010 with 86 strings deployed over seven austral summers.
    2. Involved melting holes in the ice to depths of 2,450 meters and deploying sensors connected to cables.
    • Research Goals:
    1. Observing neutrinos from various astrophysical sources to study cosmic phenomena like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and black holes.
    2. Studying cosmic rays interacting with the Earth’s atmosphere to reveal structures not fully understood.
    3. Advancing neutrino astronomy and exploring high-energy processes in the Universe.

     

    Recent Neutrino Observatories in news:

     

    [1] Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO)

    • INO approved in 2015, is a proposed particle physics research mega project.
    • Its objective is to study neutrinos in a 1,200 meter deep cave.
    • The primary objective of the INO Project is to study neutrinos, one of the most abundant fundamental particles, coming from various sources and using an underground Iron calorimeter (ICAL) detector.
    • Its location is decided to be at the Bodi West Hills (BWH) region near Pottipuram village in Theni district of Tamil Nadu (110 km from the temple town of Madurai).

    [2] China’s TRIDENT

    • Scheduled for completion in 2030, TRIDENT, aptly nicknamed “Ocean Bell” or “Hai ling” in Chinese.
    • It will be positioned 11,500 feet (3,500 meters) beneath the ocean’s surface in the Western Pacific.
    • It seeks to explore the realm of neutrinos, transient particles that momentarily interact with the deep ocean, emitting faint flashes of light.

     

    PYQs:

    (1) In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at the South Pole, which was recently in the news: (2015)

    1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
    2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
    3. It is buried deep in the ice.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    (2) India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the planning commission as a mega-science project under the 11th Five-year plan. In this context, consider the following statements: (2010)

    1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
    2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
    3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass.
    4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through the human body every second.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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  • Health Sector – UHC, National Health Policy, Family Planning, Health Insurance, etc.

    What is the HbA1C Test for Diabetes?

    Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: HbA1C Test, Diabetes (Type-1 and 2)

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • India faces a significant burden of diabetes, with an estimated 10.13 crore people affected and an additional 13.6 crore individuals classified as pre-diabetic.
    • One of the most commonly-used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes (both type 1 and type 2) and to help manage diabetes, is the haemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) test.

    What is the HbA1C Test?

    • The HbA1C test, or glycated haemoglobin test, serves as a vital tool for diagnosing pre-diabetes and diabetes, offering insights into long-term blood glucose control.
    • It measures the percentage of red blood cells coated with sugar.
    • It provides a comprehensive view of average blood glucose levels over the preceding two to three months.
    • It is recommended for individuals over 30 years and those with specific risk factors, with retests scheduled based on initial findings and individual health profiles.

    Evolution and Acceptance

    • Initially inconsistent, the test gained recognition for its correlation with blood glucose values and its role in monitoring glycemia, leading to improved standardization and accuracy.
    • It is endorsed by medical bodies like World Health Organization (WHO) and the American Diabetes Association and.
    • This underscores the test’s diagnostic utility, subject to stringent quality assurance measures.

    Interpretation of Results

    • Results are typically presented as percentages.
    1. Normal: Values below 5.7% are considered
    2. Pre-diabetes: 5.7% to 6.4%
    3. Diabetes: 6.5% or higher
    • Alternatively, results may be expressed in mmol/mol, providing a comparable metric for assessment.

    Limitations of the Test

    • While informative, the HbA1C test may be supplemented by other tests, particularly in populations with conditions affecting assay accuracy.
    • In India, factors like thalassemia prevalence and iron-deficiency anemia may impact test reliability, necessitating caution and additional indices for glycemic assessment.

    PYQ:

    ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

    1. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
    2. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
    3. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
    4. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the HbA1C test:

    1. It is used in the diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease.
    2. It measures the percentage of red blood cells coated with sugar.
    3. It is recommended for individuals over 30 years.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None

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