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Context

The Union Cabinet earlier this month has approved the continuation of over 1000 Fast Track Special Courts to ensure faster delivery of justice to victims of sexual offenses, as a centrally sponsored scheme for another two years.

What is the announcement?

• The decision offers continuation of 389 exclusive POCSO courts to expedite trials and provide immediate relief to minor girls who are victims of sexual crimes.
• The continuation of the scheme involves a total outlay of more than Rs 1,572 crore. Rs 971 crore is provided by the Centre from the Nirbhaya Fund, the remaining amount is expected to be provided by states.
• This decision is being hailed as a major step towards de-clogging the justice system.

Fast Track Special Courts: A backgrounder

• Incidents of rape of minor girls below the age of twelve years and women below the age of sixteen years have shaken the conscience of the entire nation.
• To bring more stringent provisions and expeditious trial and disposal of such cases, the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 was enacted which made provision of stringent punishment, including death penalty, for perpetrators of rape, it said.
• This led to the establishment of the fast-track special courts.

Sexual Crime in India

• Sexual Abuse/ Molestation/ Rape: Rape is one of the most common crimes in India.According to the National Crime Records Bureau, one woman is raped every 20 minutes in India.
• Marital Crimes: In India, marital rape is not a criminal offense.  India is one of fifty countries that have not yet outlawed marital rape.
• Forced Marriage: Girls are vulnerable to being forced into marriage at young ages, suffering from a double vulnerability: both for being a child and for being female.  
• Trafficking and forced prostitution: Human trafficking, especially of girls and women, often leads to forced prostitution and sexual slavery.
• Online abuse: Women are regularly subject to online rape threats, online harassment, cyber-stalking, blackmail, trolling, slut-shaming and more.
• Harassment at the workplace: Sexual harassment at workplace, mostly comprising of indecent remarks, unwanted touches, demands for sex, and the dissemination of pornography.

Why do we need to tackle such crimes in a speedy manner?

• When we talk about violence, it is easy to focus on the physical effects.
• The injuries on the body can be life-changing and can even result in death. It is important however to consider the impact of this incident can have on victim’s mental health.
• Depression, anxiety and low self-esteem are typical repercussions of a violent experience. These psychological effects can be incredibly destructive.
• Many victims report feeling suicidal tendency. The psychological effect may completely change the personality of the victim.
• Hence it is important to extend the psychological support to the victim. Speedy Justice serves this purpose.

Various laws for the protection of women

Various special laws relating to women include:

• Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
• Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
• Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
• Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
• Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006

The Government has also taken a number of initiatives for the safety of women and girls, which are given below:

• Nirbhaya Fund for projects for the safety and security of women
• One-Stop Centre Scheme to provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof
• Online analytic tool for police called “Investigation Tracking System for Sexual Offences” to monitor and track time-bound investigation in sexual assault cases in accordance with Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2018.
• National Database on Sexual Offenders (NDSO) to facilitate investigation and tracking of sexual offenders across the country by law enforcement agencies.

Need for fast-track courts

• Clearance rate: They have a better clearance rate as compared to the regular courts and hold speedy trials.
• Speedy Trial: Besides providing quick justice to the hapless victims, it strengthens the deterrence framework for sexual offenders.
• Deterrence framework: Besides providing quick justice to the victims, it strengthens the deterrence framework for sexual offenders.

Expected outcomes from these courts

• Women safety: Further the commitment of the nation to champion the cause of safety and security of women and girl child.
• Reduction of pendency of cases: Fastracking of these cases will declog the judicial system of the burden of case pendency
• Special consideration: Reduce the number of pending cases of Rape & POCSO Act.
• Speedy access to justice: Provide speedy access to justice to the victims of sexual crimes and act as a deterrent for sexual offenders.

What else can be done?

• Increasing number of fast track courts is an urgent need.
• Special investigation units comprising predominantly women police officers should be created.
• In these special courts, women judges should be there so that the victim feels comfortable in narrating the details of the sexual assault perpetrated on her.
• Gender sensitization programs will help the officers to have the required considerate approach for rape victims.
• Another very important aspect is to provide counseling for the family members of the victim. So that the family can positively help the victim to come out of trauma.
• There should be a state sponsored victim compensation fund particularly for heinous offences including rape.

Conclusion

• Breaking the cycle of abuse will require concerted collaboration and action between governmental and non-governmental actors including educators, health-care authorities, legislators, the judiciary and the mass media.
• Education of both men and women will lead to change in attitudes and perceptions.
• It is not easy to eradicate deep seated cultural value or alter traditions that perpetuates discrimination.
• It is mammoth task. We are just doing bits and pieces. A way ahead is obscure but in our sphere with concrete and pronounced steps.

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I. UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK

Targets of the Day:

A. For 2022 Aspirants:

(a) Full Time Aspirants:- Sectors of Economy: Secondary and Tertiary Sector

(b) For Working Aspirants:- Planning in India

B. For 2021 Aspirants: Attempt one Full Length Test and do the analysis

II. UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs based Most Probable Questions for Prelims 2021

Q1) Which of the following missions are not among the 9 national missions implemented by the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC)?

1. Artificial Intelligence
2. National Solar Mission
3. National Biodiversity Mission
4. Natural Language Translation
5. National Mission for a Green India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 5 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. None of the above

Q2) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to NISAR Mission

1. It uses a dual-frequency L and S-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) for earth observation.
2. It can produce extremely high resolution images day and night in any weather.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Aluminium Air Batteries.

1. It is lower in cost and has more energy dense than Lithium-ion batteries.
2. The special feature is that it can be recharged very fast and can retain the power for longer than any other batteries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Which of the following pairs are matched correctly with respect to India’s Joint Space missions?

1. Space Mission –  Partnering Nation
2. TRISHNA –  CNES, France
3. NISAR –  NASA, USA
4. LUPEX Mission –  JAXA, Japan
5. Megha-Tropiques –  CNES, France

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 & 4 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 & 4 only

D. All of the above

Q5) With respect to INS Karanj, consider the following statements:

1. It is the third of six Scorpene-class submarines being built under Project-75 by Mazagon Dock Limited, Goa.
2. It is a nuclear powered submarine to be commissioned into the Indian Navy in collaboration with France.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

III. UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021

Q1) Select the correct statement/s in reference to Near-Earth Objects (NEOs). 

1. These objects are composed mostly of water ice with embedded dust particles. 
2. NEOs do not orbit the Sun and do not have a fixed trajectory path.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 

D. None of them

Q2) Select the correct statement/s in context to M-dwarf star. 

1. They are the most numerous type of star in the universe. 
2. They are the smallest type of hydrogen-burning star. 
3. These have masses greater than that of the Sun.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. All of them

Q3) In which of the following projects is India a participant? 

1. Large Hadron Collider (LHC) 
2. Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) 
3. Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) 
4. International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER)

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2, 3 & 4

C. 1, 2 & 4

D. All of them

Q4) Consider the following statements in context to the neutrinos.

1. These are particles with no electrical charge. 
2. They are highly interactive with matter. 
3. They are abundantly found in the universe. 

Select the correct code using the codes given below.

A. 1 & 2

B. 2 & 3

C. 1 & 3

D. All of them

Q5. With reference to gravitational waves, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. All Gravitational waves produced  through merger of black holes only
2. Gravitational waves travel at the speed of light
3. Gravitational waves were detected by LIGO only in 2015. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

A. 3 only 

B. 1 & 2 only 

C. 2 & 3 only 

D. 1, 2 & 3

 

 

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24st Aug 2021

First Amendment Act, 1951

• Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes.
• Provided for the saving of laws providing for the acquisition of estates, etc.
• Added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reforms and other laws included in it from the judicial review. After Article 31, Articles 31A and 31B were inserted.

The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

• The Seventh Amendment brought about the most comprehensive changes so far in the Constitution. This amendment was designed to implement the State Reorganisation Act.
• The Second and Seventh schedules were substantially amended for the purpose of the States Reorganization Act.

Constitutional (10th Amendment) Act, 1961

• The Tenth Amendment integrates the areas of Free Dadra and Nagar Haveli with the Union of India and provides for their administration under the regulation of making powers of the President.

Constitutional (13th Amendment) Act,1963

• Gave the status of a state to Nagaland and made special provisions for it.

The Constitution (24th Amendment) Act, 1971

• It amended Article 13 and 368 with a view to removing all possible doubts regarding the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure thereof.
• It gets over the Golak Nath ruling and asserts the power of Parliament, denied to in the Golak Nath, to amend Fundamental Rights.

The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971

• The 25th amendment of the Constitution in 1971 added a new clause, Article 31C to the Constitution. Up to 1971, the position was that Fundamental Rights prevailed over the Directive Principles of State Policy and that a law enacted to implement a Directive Principle could not be valid if it conflicted with a Fundamental Right.
• Article 31C sought to change this relationship to some extent by conferring primacy on Articles 39(b) and 39(c) over Articles 14, 19 and 31.

Twenty-Sixth Amendment Act, 1971

• Abolished the privy purses and privileges of the former rulers of princely states.

The Constitution (Thirty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1974

• By this amendment twenty State Acts concerning land ceiling and land tenure reforms were added to the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution.

The Constitution (Thirty-eight Amendment) Act, 1975 

• Made the declaration of emergency by the President non-justiciable.
• Made the promulgation of ordinances by the President, governors and administrators of Union territories non-justiciable.
• Empowered the President to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously

The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

• The Amendment was meant to enhance enormously the strength of the Government. The major Amendments made in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act are: Preamble The characterization of India as ‘Sovereign Democratic Republic’ has been changed to ‘Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’.
• The words ‘Unity of the nation’ have been changed to ‘Unity and integrity of the nation’.
• Parliament and State Legislatures: The life of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was extended from 5 to 6 years.
• Executive: It amended Article 74 to State explicitly that the President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers in the discharge of his functions.
• Judiciary: The 42nd Amendment Act inserted Article 32A in order to deny the Supreme Court the power to consider the Constitutional validity of the State law. Another new provision, Article 131A, gave the Supreme Court an exclusive jurisdiction to determine question relating to the Constitutional validity of a central laws. Article 144A and Article 128A, the creatures of the Constitutional Amendment Act made further innovation in the area of judicial review of the Constitutionality of legislation. Under Article 144A, the minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court to decide a question of  Constitutional validity of a Central or State law was fixed as at least seven and further, this required two-thirds majority of the judges sitting declare law as unconstitutional. While the power  of the High Court to enforce Fundamental Rights remained untouched, several restrictions were imposed on its power to issue writs ‘for any other purpose’.
• Federalism: The Act added Article 257A in the Constitution to enable the Centre to deploy any armed force of the Union, or any other force under its control for dealing with any grave situation of law and order in any State.
• Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles: A major change that was made by42nd Constitutional Amendment was to give primacy to all Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles 14, 19 or 31.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment added a few more Directive Principles – free legal aid, participations of workers in the management of industries, protection for environment and protection of forests and wildlife of the country.
• Fundamental Duties: The 42nd Amendment Act inserted Article 51-A to create a new part called IV-A in the Constitution, which prescribed the Fundamental Duties to the citizens.
• Emergency: Prior to the 42nd Amendment Act, the President could declare an emergency under Article 352 throughout the country and not in a part of the country alone. The Act authorized the President to proclaim emergency in any part of the country.

The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978

• It reduced the life of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies again to five years and thus restore the status quo ante.
• It cancelled 39th Amendment which had deprived the Supreme Court of its jurisdiction to decide disputes concerning election of the President and the Vice-President
• A new provision was added to Article 74(1) saying that the President could require the council of ministers to reconsider its advice to him, either generally or otherwise and the President should Act in accordance with the advice tendered after such re-consideration. Article 257A was Omitted
• It has been provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet.
• Right to Property has been taken out from the list of Fundamental Rights and has been declared a legal right.

The Constitution (Fifty-first Amendment) Act, 1984

• The Amendment effectuates some changes in Articles 330 and 332 with a view to provide for reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, Aruncahal Pradesh and Mizoram, as well as in the Legislative Assemblies of Nagaland and Meghalaya.

The Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985

• The amendment is designed to prevent the scourge of defection of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures from one political party to another.

 The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989

• The 61st Amendment reduces the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and Assembly election.

The Constitution (Sixty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1990

• Article 338 of the Constitution has been amended for the Constitution of a National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consisting of a chairperson, vice-chairperson and five other members who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.

The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991

• The Amendment Act was to grant Statehood to Delhi as ‘National Capital Territory of Delhi’. It also provides a 70 member assembly and a 7 member Council of Ministers for Delhi.

 The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992

• April 20,1993 as it got rectification by the State legislatures and was assented to by the President of India. After notification, the Panchayati Raj Institutions have now got Constitutional legitimacy.
• After part VIII of the Constitution, a separate part IX has been added to the Constitution with the addition in Article 243A and fresh Schedule called Eleventh Schedule enumerating the powers and functions of Panchayti Raj Institutions.
• The Act provides for Gram Sabha, a three-tier model of Panchayati Raj, reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion to their population and one-third reservation of seats for women.

The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992

• The Act provides constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies. After part VIII of the Constitution, a separate part IXA has been added to the Constitution with the addition in Article 243A and a fresh schedule called Twelfth schedule enumerating the powers and functions of urban local bodies has been incorporated.
• The Act provides Municipal Panchayat, Municipal Council and Municipal Corporation, reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion to their population and one-third reservation of seats for women

The Constitution (76th Amendment) Act, 1994

• This Amendment Act raises the reservation quota of government jobs and seats for admission in the educational institutions in favor of socially and educationally backward classes to 69 per cent in Tamil Nadu.
• Further, the Amendment Act has been included in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution to exempt it from the purview of judicial scrutiny

The Constitution (Seventy-seventh Amendment) Act, 1995

• This Amendment has added a new clause (4-a) to Article 16 of the Constitution which empowers the State to make any provisions for reservation in promotions in Government jobs in favour of SCs and STs, if it is of opinion that they are inadequately represented in the services under the State.
• This has been done to nullify the effect of the Supreme Court Judgment in the Mandal Commission Case (Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India) in which the Court has held that reservation in promotions cannot be made.

The Constitution (80th Amendment) Act, 2000

• Based on the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission, an alternative scheme for sharing taxes between the Union and the State has been enacted by the Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000.
• Under the new scheme of devolution of revenue between Union and the States, 26 per cent out of gross proceeds of Union taxes and duties is to be assigned to the States in lieu of their existing share in the income-tax, excise duties special excise duties and grants in lieu of tax on railway passenger fares. 

The Constitution (85^th Amendment) Act, 2001

• This Act amended Article 16 (4A) of the Constitution to provide for consequential seniority in the case of promotion by virtue of rule of reservation for Government servants belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

The Constitution (86^th Amendment) Act, 2002

• With a view to making right to free and compulsory education a fundamental right, the Act inserts a new Article, namely, Article 21A conferring on all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years the right to free and compulsory education.
• The Act amends in Part-III, Part –IV and Part-IV(A) of the Constitution.

The Constitution (89^th Amendment) Act, 2003

• The Act adds Article 338A and provides for the creation of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

 The Constitution (90^th Amendment) Act, 2003

• The Act amends Article 332 and adds section (6) regarding representation in the Bodo Territorial Areas District in the State of Assam.

The Constitution (Ninety-one Amendment) Act,2003

• The Act makes provisions for limiting the size of the Council of Ministers at the Center and in the States and gives teeth to debar a defector from holding any remunerative political post for the remaining tenure of the legislature unless reelected.

The Constitution (Ninety- third Amendment) Act, 2005

• Providing reservation for the socially and educationally backward classes, besides the Schedules Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, in private unaided educational institutions.

The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2012

• In Part IIIof the constitution, after the words “or unions” the words “Cooperative Societies” was added.
• In Part IVa new Article 43Bwas inserted, which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies”.
• After Part IXAof the constitution, a Part IXBwas inserted to accommodate state vs centre roles.

The Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014

• The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was established by the Union government of India by amending the constitution of India through the 99^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 201

The Constitution (100th Amendment) Act, 2015

• Constitution (100th Amendment) Act 2015 ratified the land boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh.
• The act amended the 1st schedule of the constitution to exchange the disputed territories occupied by both the nations in accordance with the 1974 bilateral Land Boundary Agreement.
• India received 51 Bangladeshi enclaves (covering 7,110 acres) in the Indian mainland, while Bangladesh received 111 Indian enclaves (covering 17,160 acres) in the Bangladeshi mainland

The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2017

• Introduced the Goods and Services Tax.

The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act, 2018

• Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes

The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019

• A maximum of 10% Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) of citizens of classes other than the classes mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 15, i.e. Classes other than socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
• Inserted Clause [6] under Article 15 as well as Inserted Clause [6] under Article 16.

---

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III. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Science & Technology Current Affairs Most Probable Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Nuclear Medicines

1. It uses small amounts of radioactive materials called radiotracers that are typically injected into the bloodstream, inhaled or swallowed.
2. Hyperthyroidism, thyroid cancer, and bone pain from some types of cancer are few diseases treated with nuclear medicine.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2) Consider the following statements with respect to Einsteinium

1. It was discovered in the debris of the first atomic bomb “Little Boy” that was dropped over the city of Hiroshima, Japan.
2. It is a naturally occurring element which has radioactive properties.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3) Consider the following statements about Trans fat

1. Trans fat are saturated fatty acids that come from either natural or industrial sources.
2. It is industrially produced by adding hydrogen to vegetable oil converting the liquid into a solid, resulting in “partially hydrogenated” oil (PHO). 
3. FSSAI has notified that Trans fat in oil and fats to be limited to 3% in all fats and oils by 2021 and 2 % by January 2022.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Q4) Consider the following statements about Vigyan Jyoti programme

1. It is an initiative by the Department of Science and Technology.
2. It is to encourage girls to take interest in Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics (STEM). 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to Arjun Main Battle Tank MK-1A

1. It is jointly designed, developed and manufactured by DRDO and Lockheed Martin, an US corporation. 
2. It has a computer-controlled integrated fire control system with stabilised sighting that works in all lighting conditions.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IV. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021

Q1) Select the correct statement/s from the following statements. 

1. Both Covid-19 and Swine flu are caused due to viruses from non-human hosts.
2.  Both are respiratory viruses that spread through contact.
3. Both are zoonotic diseases

Which of above statement are true?

A. 1  and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of them

Q2) Which of the following tests are being used for testing COVID-19? 

1. Rapid Antigen Test (RAT) 
2. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) test 
3. Serology Test 
4. TrueNat test 
5. ELISA test

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only 

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only 

(c) 4 and 5 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q3) Select the correct statement/s from the following statements with respect to Angiotensin Converting Enzyme 2 (ACE2). 

1. ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. 
2. 2. The SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2, using the spike like protein on its surface.

Which of above statements is/are true?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 

D. None of them

Q4) Consider the following statements in context to “happy hypoxia” sometimes seen in news. 

1. This condition is characterized by extremely low blood oxygen levels in humans. 
2. Such patients show signs of breathlessness. 
3. Patients with such a condition live in great distress. 

Select the correct code from the codes given below.

A. 1  and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of them

Q5) Consider the following statements about ZyCoV-D

1. It is first Covid vaccine approved for Children in India
2. It is fully Funded by Department of Biotech under its Covid Suraksha Mission
3. It is also a two dose vaccine
4. It is administered intra-dermal. 

Which of above statements are true?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

V. Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News

 

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17th Apr 2021

The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. The document lays down the framework demarcating fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens. 

It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November 1949 and became effective on 26 January 1950. The constitution replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document, and the Dominion of India became the Republic of India. To ensure constitutional autonomy, its framers repealed prior acts of the British parliament in Article 395. 

The constitution declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality and liberty, and endeavours to promote fraternity. The original 1950 constitution is preserved in a helium-filled case at the Parliament House in New Delhi. The words “secular” and “socialist” were added to the preamble in 1976 during the emergency.

The Indian constitution is the world’s longest for a sovereign nation. At its enactment, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. At about 145,000 words, it is the second-longest active constitution – after the Constitution of Alabama – in the world.

Articles in Indian Constitution: As the written constitution is a compact document like a book, it has various parts, parts have various chapters, chapters have various articles.

The constitution has a preamble and 395 articles, which are grouped into 25 parts. With 12 schedules and five appendices, it has been amended 103 times; the latest amendment became effective on 14 January 2019. Despite various amendments, the number of articles in the Constitution still remains 395. There is nothing like Article 396. The new articles are always inserted in between i.e. Article 31A.

IMPORTANT TITBIT:  If counted separately there are 444 Articles but in the Constitution of India there are only 396 Articles. The rest are merely clauses or sub-clauses added later. The reason behind this is that there is a rule that no one can alter the basic structure of the COI. Now a problem came up, which was how to include more articles as you cannot add a 397th article as it would be against the Basic Structure Doctrine, so a solution that came up, which was that to include the new articles in clauses or sub-clauses of the existing articles.

Here are the lists of various important Articles of the Indian Constitution: 

S.No	Article	Deals with
1	1	Name and Territory of Union
2	3	New States Formation, Alteration of Boundaries, etc.
3	13	Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights
4	14	Equality before Law (popularly known as Right to Equality)
5	15	Prohibition of Discrimination (on basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)
6	16	Equality in case of Public Employment
7	17	Abolition of Untouchability
8	18	Abolition of Titles
9	19	Protection of Certain Rights to Freedom (popularly known as Right to Freedom)
10	19 (a)	Freedom of Speech & Expression
11	19 (b)	Right to Peaceful Assembly
12	19 (c)	Freedom of Association
13	19 (d)	Right to Move Freely through India
14	19 (e)	Freedom of Settlement & Residence
15	19 (f)	(Omitted as a fundamental right – governed by article 300A.) Right to Own Personal Property.
16	19 (g)	Freedom to Practise any Profession, Occupation, Trade or Business
17	21	Right to Life and Personal Liberty
18	21A	Right to Education
19	23	Prohibition of Human Trafficking and Forced Labour
20	24	Prohibition of Child Labour
21	25	Freedom to Practise & Propagate Religion Freely
22	29	Protection of Interests of Minorities
23	32	Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights including writs
24	44	Uniform Civil Code
25	50	Separation of Judiciary from Executive
26	51	Promotion of International Peace and Security
27	51A	Fundamental Duties
28	72	Powers of President to Grant Pardons etc.
29	76	Attorney-General of India
30	78	Duties of Prime Minister
31	85	Sessions of Parliament, Prorogation and Dissolution
32	93	The Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
33	100	Voting in Houses
34	105	Powers, Privileges, etc. of Members of Parliament
35	106	Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament
36	108	Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament
37	109-110	Money Bills
38	112	Budget
39	123	President’s Power to Promulgate Ordinance while Parliament in Recess
40	127	Appointment of ad hoc Judges in the Supreme Court
41	139	Supreme Court’s Powers to Issue Certain Writs
42	141	Supreme Court’s Law Binding on All Courts
43	148-149	Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
44	155	Appointment of Governor
45	161	Power of Governors to Grant Pardon etc.
46	165	Advocate-General for the State
47	167	Duties of Chief Minister
48	224	Appointment of Additional & Acting Judges in High Courts
49	224A	Appointment of Retired Judges in High Courts
50	226	Power of High Courts to issue writs
51	280	Finance Commission
52	312	All India Services
53	324	Election Commission
54	335	SCs and STs claim to Services and Posts
55	343	Official Language
56	352	National Emergency
57	356	President’s Rule in case of Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States
58	360	Financial Emergency
59	368	Power of Parliament to Amend the Constitution
60	370	Temporary provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir
61	392	Power of the President to remove difficulties

Schedules of the Indian Constitution

Like a book contains appendices to explain things and provide extra info, the constitution contains various schedules. They are Lists that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government. They are kept separate because it is a lengthy document and hence, not included in the original text of constitution but they are very much part of the constitution. 

Important Titbits:

1. Originally they were 8 in number, now they are 12. 
2. The 4 new schedules were added: IX through the 1st Constitution Amendment Act 1951); X through Anti-Defection Law 52nd CAA 1985; XI through the 73rd CAA Panchayati Raj 1992 and XII through the 74th CAA Municipality 1992.
3. Matters added to the 9th schedule after 24th April 1973 (Kesavananda Bharati Case) are not immune to judicial review (I.R. Coelho case)

Schedules of Indian Constitution

Numbers	Subject Matter
First Schedule	Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction. Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
Second Schedule	Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of: The President of India The Governors of States The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states The Judges of the Supreme Court The Judges of the High Courts The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Third Schedule	Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for: 1. The Union ministers 2. The candidates for election to the Parliament 3. The members of Parliament 4. The judges of the Supreme Court 5. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 6. The state ministers 7. The candidates for election to the state legislature 8. The members of the state legislature 9. The judges of the High Courts
Fourth Schedule	Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
Fifth Schedule	Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth Schedule	Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule	Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Presently, the Union List contains 100 subjects (originally 97), the state list contains 61 subjects (originally 66) and the concurrent list contains 52 subjects (originally 47).
Eighth Schedule	Languages recognized by the Constitution. Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71 st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
Ninth Schedule	Acts and Regulations (originally 13 but presently 282) 19 of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system and of the. Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
Tenth Schedule	Provisions relating to the disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as Anti-defection Law.
Eleventh Schedule	Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities ofPanchayats. It has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
Twelfth Schedule	Specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.

Fundamental Rights

• Enshrined in Part-III of Indian Constitution, Fundamental Rights are the basic human rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India. The six fundamental rights include Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights and Right to constitutional Remedies.
• Fundamental Rights is one of the important topics in Indian polity subject in UPSC Syllabus. In this article, we will touch upon some of the most important points from this topic. We’ll also discuss some of the previously asked questions centered around Fundamental Rights.
• Originally Right to property (Article 31) was also included in the Fundamental Rights. However, by the 44th Constitutional Ammendment Act, 1978, it was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the constitution.

Fundamental Rights in India (Article 12-35)

• The development of Fundamental Rights in India is heavily inspired by United State’s Bill of Rights. These rights are included in the constitution because they are considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity.
  • Fundamental Rights are included in Part-III of the Indian constitution which is also known as Magna Carta of Indian Constitution.
  • These rights are called fundamental rights because they are justiciable in nature allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated

Features of the Fundamental Rights

• FRs are protected and guaranteed by the constitution.
• FRs are NOT sacrosanct or absolute: in the sense that the parliament can curtail them or put reasonable restrictions for fixed period of time. However, the court has the power to review the reasonablity of the restrictions.
• FRs are justifiable: The constitution allow the person to move directly to the Surpreme Court for the reinforcement of his fundamental right as and when they are violated or restricted.
• Suspension of Fundamental Rights: All the Fundamental Rights are suspended during National Emergencies except the rights guaranteed under Article 20 and 21.
• Restriction of Fundamental Rights: The Fundamental Rights can be restricted during the military rule in any particular area.

Important Articles Related To Fundamental Rights

Let us now look at some of the important articles related to the Fundamental Rights in India:

Article 12: Defines the State

Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines The State as:

• The Government and Parliament of India,
• The Government and legislatures of the states,
• All local authorities and
• Other authorities in India or under the control of the Government of India.

Article 13: Defines Laws Inconsistent with or In derogation of Fundamental Rights

• Article 13 of the Indian Constitution states that:
• All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
• The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
• In this article, unless the context otherwise required, –

(a) “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law;

(b)“laws in force” includes laws passed or made by a Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas.

• Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under article 368.

Classification of Fundamental Rights

The fundamental rights are classified into the following six categories:

Article 12: Defines the State

Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines The State as:

• The Government and Parliament of India,
• The Government and legislatures of the states,
• All local authorities and
• Other authorities in India or under the control of the Government of India.

Article 13: Defines Laws Inconsistent with or In derogation of Fundamental Rights

• Article 13 of the Indian Constitution states that:
• All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
• The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
• In this article, unless the context otherwise required, –

(a) “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law;

(b)“laws in force” includes laws passed or made by a Legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be then in operation either at all or in particular areas.

• Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under article 368.

Classification of Fundamental Rights

The fundamental rights are classified into the following six categories:

(1) Right to Equality

Art 14 – Equality before Law

Art 15 – Prohibition of Discrimination

Art 16 – Equality of Opportunity in Public Employment

Art 17 – Abolition of Untouchability

Art 18 – Abolition of Titles

(2) Right to Freedom

Art 19 – Protection of 6 Rights:

• Right to freedom of speech and expression.
• Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
• Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
• Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Art 20 – Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences

Art 21 – Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

Art 21-A Right to Education

Art 22 – Protection against Arrest and Detention

(3) Right against Exploitation          

Art 23 – Prohibition of Human Trafficking and Forced Labor

Art 24 – Prohibition of Child Labor

(4) Right to Freedom of Religion   

Art 25 – Freedom of Conscience, Profession, Practice, and Propagation

Art 26 – Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs

Art 27 – Freedom from Taxation for Promotion of a Religion

Art 28 – Freedom from Attending Religious Instruction

(5) Educational and Cultural Rights

Art 29 – Protection of Interests of Minorities

Art 30 – Right of Minorities to Establish and Administer Educational Institutions

(6) Right to Constitutional Remedies         

Art 32 – Right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights using five writs:

• Habeas Corpus – to direct the release of a person detained unlawfully.
• Mandamus – to direct a public authority to do its duty.
• Quo Warranto – to direct a person to vacate an office assumed wrongfully.
• Prohibition – to prohibit a lower court from proceeding on a case.
• Certiorari – power of the higher court to remove a proceeding from a lower court and bring it before itself.

Art 33 – Empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the ‘Members of the Armed Forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces

Art 34 – Provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law (military rule) is in force

Art 35 – Empowers the Parliament to make laws on Fundamental Rights

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1. Questions (PDF).
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I. UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK

II. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Economy Current Affairs Most Probable Questions

Q1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Arctic Amplification.

1. The phenomenon highlights that over the past 30 years, the Arctic has warmed at roughly twice the rate as the entire globe.
2. Iodic acid (HIO3) is one of the aerosol particles responsible for Arctic Amplification or Arctic Warming.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2) Consider the following statements with respective to Vikas Engine.

1. It is a family of Solid-propellant rocket engines which will be used in Aditya-L1 Mission.
2. It is used in both Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Man Portable Antitank Guided Missile (MPATGM)

1. It is a low weight man portable missile which follows fire and forgets principle.
2. It has been developed indigenously by the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Which of the following is/are the disadvantage/s of 3D Priniting?

1. More time
2. Limited raw materials
3. Cybersecurity concerns
4. High cost
5. Limited size

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) All the above

Q5) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with reference to “deep fakes”?

1. It refers to the practice of setting up fictitious online profiles for luring another person into a fraudulent romantic relationship.
2. Using AI algorithms a person’s words, head movements and expressions are transferred onto another person in a seamless fashion.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

III. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021

Q1) Which of the following given below are the features of capitalist economy? 

1. Public ownership of means of production 

2. Production takes place for selling the output in the market 

3. Sale and purchase of labor services at a price called wage rate 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of them

Q2)  Which of the following are the benefits of contract farming? 

1. Availability of quality seeds for farmers 

2. Assured procurement of the produce 

3. Reduction in price related risks 

4. New markets for farm products 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1,3 and 4 only

(d) All of them

Q3) Which of the following given below carry out the Buffer stocking operations in India? 

1. Food Corporation of India 

2. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) 

3. Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of them

Q4) Consider the following statements

1. Angel investors are high net worth individuals who invest their personal income in business start-ups or small and medium scale companies. 

2. Exemption from angel tax for companies has been increased to 200 crores as per new rules.

Which of the following Statements are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None of them

Q5)  Which of the following are the features of the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020? 

1. Issuance of shares and securities by cooperative banks 
2. Supersession of Board of Directors 
3.  Allowing the central bank to initiate a scheme for reconstruction or amalgamation
4. Bringing all NBFCs under RBI regulation

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1,3 and 4 only

(d) All of them

IV. Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News

The Government has recently issued a Request for Proposal (RPF) to the two selected Indian Strategic Partners (SP) – for building six conventional submarines indigenously under Project 75 India or P-75I.

A backgrounder

• Project 75 India is a part of India’s thirty-year-old submarine building plan by which all the six submarines which are under the project should already be sailing and it should have been followed by the submarines now for which the RFP has been issued.
• It is a long-awaited and long-overdue project.
• This should have happened way back but it got delayed because it was difficult to find a strategic partnership model.

What is Project-75I?

• The Project 75I-class submarine is a follow-on of the Project 75 Kalvari-class submarine for the Indian Navy.
• In the late 1990s, around the time of Kargil war, a three-decade plan took shape for indigenous construction of submarines.
• It was known to have two separate series of submarine building lines – codenamed Project 75 and Project 75I — in collaboration with foreign entities.
• Under this project, the Indian Navy intends to acquire six diesel-electric submarines, which will also feature advanced air-independent propulsion systems.
• This is for enabling them to stay submerged for longer duration and substantially increase their operational range.

Air-independent propulsion (AIP)

• AIP has the fuel cell technology which permits the batteries of the submarines to continue functioning even after it gets discharged.
• It also reduces the chances of detection because the moment it comes closer to the surface, submarines are very prone to detection and after that, it becomes very difficult for a submarine to hide because it cannot move quickly under the water. 
• Hence, AIP gives longer endurance to submarines than what a conventional battery submarine can offer.
• AIP is required on an urgent basis for the Indian Navy subs in view of the growing presence of the Chinese in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

Strategic importance of submarines development

• Ageing arsenal: Currently, India has less number of submarines than what is required with some more of those from both types being at various stages of construction. India currently operates one submarine each in nuclear-powered Classes of Chakra and Arihant and in addition to 14 submarines belonging to three classes of Diesel Electric category — Kalvari, Shishumar and Sindhughosh, some of which are ageing.
• Combat roles in near future: The nuclear powered and diesel-electric submarines have their designated roles in the Carrier Battle Groups, which are formations of ships and submarines with Aircraft Carriers at the lead role.
• Strategic deterrence: As per the basic principles of submarine deployment and the minimum requirement for India to create a strategic deterrence, there is a specific number of submarines of both types that India needs to have in active service.

Significance of Project 75 India

• ‘Make in India’ Projects: It will serve to facilitate faster and more significant absorption of technology and create a tiered industrial ecosystem for submarine construction in India.
• Self-Reliance: From a strategic perspective, this will help reduce current dependence on imports and gradually ensure greater self-reliance and dependability of supplies from indigenous sources.
• Securing Indo-Pacific: China is increasing its presence in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and this is creating pressure on the Indian Navy in sprucing up the submarine arm.

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Please register for Streak free initiative through this link:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/streak-daily-initiative/

You will get following study material:-

1. Questions (PDF).
2. RSTV/Yojana monthly notes (PDF).
3. Burning issue (PDF).
4. Subject specific (PDF).
5. Mentor’s phone call for support & encouragement.

I. UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022

II. CSAT for UPSC Prelims || Free CSAT Sessions by Civilsdaily

III. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Economy Current Affairs Most Probable Questions

Q1) Consider the following statements about Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) 

1. It is a short-term debt financing facility.

2. Agricultural Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs) are beneficiaries of this fund. 

3. The final authority to sanction loans under the fund is with the banks after checking details and viability of the projects. 

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 

a. 1 and 2 only 

b. 2 and 3 only 

c. 1 and 3 only 

d. All of the above

Q2) Consider the following statements with respect to Employees’ State Insurance Corporation of India (ESIC) 

1. It is a statutory corporate body established under an Act of Parliament. 

2. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

a. 1 only 

b. 2 only 

c. Both 1 and 2 

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3) Consider the following statements about the Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement of Price Assurance and Farm Services Act, 2020:

1. A farming agreement cannot be entered for sale, lease or raising of any permanent structure in the land of the farmer.

2. If a farmer fails to honour his commitment as per the farming agreement, recovery can be initiated against the land of the farmer.

3. The Block Development Officer will function as a Sub-Divisional Authority for deciding the disputes under the farming agreements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4) Consider the following statements about the Code on Social Security, 2020:

1. The inter-state migrant workers have been defined under the Act as only the workers who are working in another state and have been recruited through a contractor.

2. It creates a statutory body, called the National Social Security Board, to be headed by the Prime Minister.

3. The aggregators will contribute between 1-2% of their annual turnover towards a social security fund for the gig economy workers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to India Energy Exchange (IEX) 

1. It is a virtual exchange used to trade carbon footprints of Industries and discoms. 

2. It is launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate change. 

3.Energy saving certificates and Renewable Energy Certificates are products of IEX. 

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

a. 1 only 

b. 1 and 2 only 

c. 1 and 3 only 

d. 3 only

IV. UPSC PRELIMS-2021: Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021

Q1) Which of the following statements regarding Imported Inflation is/are correct?

1. When the general price level rises in a country because of the rise in prices of imported commodities it is known as imported inflation.

2. The weakening of the domestic currency may lead to imported inflation in the country.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2) Which of the following given below is/are part of the current account in the Balance of Payments (BOP)?

1. Balance of trade 

2. Balance of services and remittances 

3. Investment and borrowing 

Which of above statements are true?

1 and 3

2 and 3

1 and 2

All of them

Q3) Consider the following statements about Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status in context of international trade

1. It denotes equality  of one country towards another nation in trade. 

2. WTO members cannot violate the MFN clause in any conditions

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 

1. India’s tax system is progressive with heavy dependence on direct tax. 

2. Direct tax-to-GDP ratio remains consistently higher than that of indirect tax-to-GDP. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5) Consider the following statements about Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) 

1. It is aimed to facilitate the taxation of  ‘zero tax companies‘ i.e., those companies which show zero or negligible income to avoid tax.

2. It is calculated on book profits of a company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

V. Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News

 

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21st Aug 2021

• With almost absolute power the Governor-General and viceroy played a significant role in the shaping history of the country. Following are some of these important figures and significant events and major reforms carried out by them.

  Governor Generals of Bengal/India (Period)	Important events/Reforms
  Warren Hastings      (1773-1785)	Regulating Act of 1773. First Governor-General of Bengal. End of the dual system of administration (1765-1772). Supreme Court at Calcutta. Wrote Introduction to the first English translation of Gita. Founded Madarasa Aliya at Calcutta.
  Lord Cornwallis      (1786-1793)	Separation of three branches of service: commercial, judicial and revenue. Permanent Land Revenue Settlement of Bengal-1793. Reformed, modernised and rationalised the civil service. Introduced the Cornwallis Code. Sanskrit College, Varanasi.
  Lord Wellesley      (1797-1805)	Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance System. Fourth Anglo-Mysore war. Fort William College, Calcutta.
  Lord Hastings      (1813-1823)	Anglo-Nepal War (1814-16) Third Anglo-Maratha War-(1817-19) and dissolution of Maratha confederacy. Introduction of Ryotwari System of Thomas Munro, Governor of Madras-1820.
  Lord William Bentinck      (1828-1835)	Charter Act of 1833. Abolition of Sati-1829. Resolution of 1835 and Education reforms and introduction of English as the official language. The annexation of Mysore-1831, Coorg, and Central Cachar-1831.
  Lord Dalhousie      (1848-1856)	Introduction of the Doctrine of Lapse and annexations of Satara-1848, Jaitpur and Sambhalpur-1849, Udaipur-1852, Jhansi-1853, Nagpur-1854 and Awadh-1856. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854. Railway Minute of 1853. Telegraph and Postal reforms. Widow Remarriage Act-1856.
  Lord Canning      (1856-1857)	Establishment of universities at Bombay, Madras and Calcutta. Mutiny of 1857.

  Governor-General and Viceroy of India (Period)	Important events/Reforms
  Lord Canning (1858-1862)	First Voiceroy of India. Transfer of control from East India Company to the Crown by the Government of India Act 1858 Indian Councils Act-1861
  Lord Mayo      (1869-1872)	Opening of Rajkot College in Kathiawad and Mayo College at Ajmer for political training of Indian Princes. Statistical Survey of India was established. Department of Agriculture and Commerce was established. Introduction of state railways.
  Lord Lytton      (1876-1880)	The Great Famine of 1876 affecting Bombay, Madras, Mysore, Hyderabad, Central India and Punjab. Appointment of Famine Commission under the presidency of Richard Strachey. Vernacular Press Act was passed- 1878. The Arms Act-1878.
  Lord Ripon      (1880-1884)	Education Commission 1882 under William Hunter-1882. Ilbert Bill controversy. Repeal of Vernacular Press Act in 1882. The First Factory Act in 1881 to improve labour conditions. Government resolution on local self government-1882.
  Lord Dufferin      (1884-1888)	Establishment of Indian National Congress.
  Lord Lansdowne     (1888-1894)	The categorisation of civil services into imperial, provincial and subordinate. Indian Councils Act-1892 Durand Commission (1893) was set up to define the Durand Line between India and Afghanistan.
  Lord Curzon      (1899-1905)	Police Commission (1902) was appointed under Sir Andrew Frazer. University Commission (1902) was appointed and Universities Act (1904) was passed. Department of Commerce and Industry was established. Calcutta Corporation Act-1899 Partition of Bengal (1905).
  Lord Minto-II      (1905-1910)	Popularisation of anti-partition and Swadeshi Movements. Split in Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907. Indian Muslim League was established by Aga Khan (1907) Morley-Minto reforms or Indian Councils Act 1909.
  Lord Hardinge-II      (1910-1916)	Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911). Establishment of Hindu Mahasabha (1915) by Madan Mohan Malviya.
  Lord Chelmsford     (1916-1921)	Home Rule League was formed by Annie Besant and Tilak (1916) Lucknow session of Congress (1916). Lucknow Pact between Congress and Muslim League (1916). Champaran Satyagraha (1918), and Satyagraha at Ahmadabad (1918). Montague’s August Declaration. Government of Indian Act- 1919 Jallianwalla Bagh massacre (1919). Non-Cooperation and Khilafat Movements were launched. Foundation of Women’s University at Poona (1916) and Saddler’s Commission was appointed for reforms in educational policy. Appointment of S. P. Sinha as governor of Bihar first Indian to do so.
  Lord Reading      (1921-1926)	The Chaura-Chauri Incident-Feb5, 1922 and withdrawal of Non-Cooperation movement. Moplah rebellion in Kerala (1921). Repeal of the Press Act of 1910 and Rowlatt Act of 1919. Kakori train robbery (1925) Establishment of Swaraj Party (1922). The decision to hold a simultaneous examination for ICS in Delhi and London with effect from 1923.
  Lord Irwin      (1926-1931)	Simon Commission-1928 Appointment of the Harcourt Butler Indian States Commission (1927) Murder of Saunders and Bomb blast in the Assembly Hall of Delhi-1929 Lahore session of Congress 1929 and Purna Swaraj Resolution. Dandi March (12 March, 1929) and launch of Civil Disobedience Movement.
  Lord Willingdon     (1931-1936)	Second Round Table Conference and failure of the conference, resumption of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Announcement of the Communal Award (1932). Poona Pact (1932) Third Round Table Conference 1932. The Government of India Act, 1935. Establishment of All India Kisan Sabha 1936. Establishment of Congress Socialist Party by Acharya Narendra Dev and Jayaprakash Narayan (1934)
  Lord Linlithgow      (1936-1944)	First general elections were held and Congress attained absolute majority (1936-1937). Congress ministers resigned (1937) after the outbreak of WW-II Subhash Chandra Bose elected as the president of Congress-1938. Lahore Resolution by Muslim League for the demand of separate state for Muslims. August Offer by the viceroy-1940. Cripp’s Mission to India Passing of the Quit India Resolution by Congress-1942
  Lord Wavell      (1944-1947)	C Rajgopalachari’s CR Formula (1944) and Gandhi-Jinnah Talks failed. Wavell Plan and the Shimla Conference (1942) Cabinet Mission and Congress accepted its plan 1946 Observance of the ‘Direct Action Day’ (16 August 1946) by the Muslim League. Elections to the Constituent Assembly and formation of Interim Government by the Congress (September 1946). Announcement of the end of British rule in India by Clement Attlee on February 20, 1946
  Lord Mountbatten      (1947-48)	June Third Plan (June 3, 1947) announced. Introduction of Indian Independence Bill in the House of Commons. Appointment of two boundary commissions under Sir Cyril Radcliff for the partition of Bengal and Punjab.

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