Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

Please register for Streak Initiative (free) through this link:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/streak-daily-initiative/

You will get following study material:-

1. Questions (PDF).
2. RSTV/Yojana monthly notes (PDF).
3. Burning issue (PDF).
4. Subject specific (PDF).
5. Mentor’s phone call for support & encouragement.

_____________________________________________

UPSC Daily Study Plan For 2021 and 2022 || STREAK – by Ravi Ranjan

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Most Probable Questions – by Sukanya Rana

Q1) Consider the following pairs Indian Defence Operations – Purpose

1. Operation Pawan – IPKF operation against LTTE

2. Operation Rainbow – Against Chinese offensives on Cho La 

Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q2) Consider the following statements with respective to DAVINCI+ Mission

1. It will try to understand Venus‟ composition to analyse the formation and evolution of the planet.

2. It will try to return the first high resolution photographs of a geological feature that is unique to Venus.

3. It will also determine if active volcanoes are releasing water vapour into the atmosphere.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3) With respect to UNESCO Science Report (USR), consider the following statements:

1. It is a flagship publication of UNESCO, released for every five years.

2. The report states that India has made solid progress towards investment in research but failed to progress towards SDG targets.

3. India has one of the lowest Gross Domestic Expenditure on Research (GERD) / GDP ratios among the BRICS nations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4) Consider the following statements with respect to Green Hydrogen

1. Hydrogen when produced by electrolysis using renewable energy is known as Green Hydrogen.

2. The production cost of Green hydrogen is very low when compared to the production costs of grey hydrogen.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q5) Consider the following statements with respective to Carbon nanotubes (CNTs)

1. Single-wall carbon nanotubes are one of the allotropes of carbon, intermediate between fullerene cages and flat graphene.

2. They have ultra-high strength, and low weight and possess high conductive electrical, thermal properties.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Science & Technology by Santosh Gupta

Q1) Consider the following statements about India’s  aircraft carrier IAC-1:

1. It is  named as INS Vikrant
2. It is completely designed and developed in India
3. The 40,000t IAC Vikrant is capable of accommodating MiG 29K fighter jets and helicopters.
4. India will now have three Aircraft carriers. 

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. All of them

Q2) Which of these ships have been inducted recently by the Indian Navy at Eastern Naval Command capable of Anti-Submarine warfare?

A. INS Arihant

B. INS Kamorta

C. INS Kadmatt

D. INS Kavaratti

Q3) Which of the following is correct about the Global Positioning System?

1. It is a position indicating satellite system of USA
2. It has a total 24 satellites revolving in 6 orbits.
3. Précised system of GPS is known as DGPS.
4. Russian equivalent of GPS is COMPASS

Select the correct option/options given below:

A. 2  and 3 only             

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1,  2 and 3 only          

D. 1 and 3 only

Q4) Consider the following statements regarding IndCEPI

1. IT is one of the initiative under Atal Jai Anusandhan Biotech Mission
2. It aims to develop affordable vaccines for pandemic diseases
3. Innovative Technology interventions for Swachh Bharat.
4. Affordable generic medicines for all branded medicines

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 

D. All of them

Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to CMS-01.

1. It is a radar imaging satellite. 
2. It will function as the continuation of the GSAT-11 satellite. 
3. The mission life of CMS-01 is around five years. 

Select the correct code from the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of them

Daily Dose: Complete Snapshots of Everyday News – by Shweta Mishra

 

UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)

27st Aug 2021

Constitutional bodies

	Appointment	Tenure	Removal	Process of removal	Eligibility for reappointment w/i govt.
Attorney general (Advocate general)	President (governor)	Pleasure of President (governor)	President (governor)	No reason needs to be mentioned	Yes
Election Commission (SEC)	President (governor)	6 years/ 65	President	CEC and SEC by a special majority Other ECs on the recommendation of CEC	Yes
Finance commission (SFC)	President (governor)	Specified by president	NA	NA	Yes
UPSC (SPSC)	President (governor)	6 years/ 65	President	After enquiry by supreme court	Members can become Chair, state members can become chair or member or chair of UPSC
CAG	President	6 years/ 65	President	Special majority	No

 

Statutory bodies

	Appointment	Committee members	Other members	Tenure	Removal
NHRC (SHRC)	President (Governor)	6 (PM + LOP Lok Sabha)	Speaker, Deputy CP RS, LOP RS, home minister	3 years*/ 70	President after Supreme Court inquiry
CIC (SIC)	President (Governor)	3 ((PM + LOP Lok Sabha)	Cabinet Minister nominated by PM	As prescribed by the Central Govt*./ 65	President (governor for SIC) after supreme court inquiry
CVC	President (governor)	3 ((PM + LOP lok sabha)	Home minister	4 years/ 65	President after Supreme court inquiry
Lokpal	President	5 (PM + LOP lok sabha	Speaker, CJI, eminent jurist	5 years/ 70	Like a Supreme Court judge

* After amendments in the respective acts in 2019.

In the news: 

1. Amendment to the RTI Act (July 2019)

• Section 13 of the original Act sets the term of the central Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners at five years(or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier). The amendment proposes that the appointment will be “for such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government”.
• The amendment proposes that the salaries, allowances and other terms of service of the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners “shall be such as may be prescribed by the Central Government” which was earlier at par with Chief Election Commissioner.

2. Amendment to Protection of Human Rights Act (July 2019)

• It reduced the term of the Chairperson and Members of the Commission and the State Commissions from five to three yearsand shall be eligible for re-appointment.
• Provision was added which says a person who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court is also eligible to be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India.
• The amendment made provision that a person who has been a Judge of a High Court is also made eligible to be appointed as Chairperson of the State Commissionin addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of the High Court.
• It conferred upon State Commissions, the functions relating to human rights being discharged by the Union territories, other than the Union territory of Delhi, which will be dealt with by the Commission.

 

---

UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)

Samanvaya: Free 1-to-1 mentorship for UPSC IAS

Fill up this form to schedule a free on-call discussion with senior mentor from Civilsdaily. Once submitted we will call you within 24 hours.

UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)

Context  

• Bilateral ties between New Delhi and Paris cover a gamut of issues including defense, maritime, space, security, and energy.
• The two nations have managed to carve out a forward-looking partnership that is aimed at strengthening bilateral cooperation on issues such as terrorism, climate change, sustainable growth and development, infrastructure, urbanization, and science and technology.

Background

• France-India have a ‘special relationship’ with each other, so much so that by August 2019, France has been called “India’s new best friend” by a researcher of the Hudson Institute.
• Both nations have a centuries-old history of trade relations.
• From the 17th century until 1954, France maintained a colonial presence in the Indian subcontinent; Puducherry, one of its former Indian territories, is a popular tourism destination for French travellers to India.
• India has largely referred French constitutional principles in its constitution making

Highlights of the recent meet

• India and France explored ways to strengthen cooperation in the Indo-Pacific, including under a trilateral mechanism with Australia to address emerging challenges in the maritime and space domains.
• The two foreign ministers held extensive talks covering all aspects of the bilateral strategic ties as well as regional and global challenges.

Key areas collaboration

(A) Strategic cooperation

• France has decided to be part of India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI).
• Both nations have explored ways to strengthen cooperation in the Indo-Pacific.
• This includes the India-France-Australia trilateral mechanism, addressing emerging challenges in the maritime and space domains and working together in the area of climate action and biodiversity protection.

(B) Trade

• Bilateral trade with France has witnessed a steady rise in the last decade reaching USD 10.75 billion in 2020.
• The two sides also recognised the importance of fast tracking the discussions on an India-EU trade and investment agreement.

(C) Defence collaboration

• The defence and security ties between India and France are on an upswing in the last few years.
• India had signed an inter-governmental agreement with France in September 2016 for procurement of 36 Rafale fighter jets at a cost of around Rs 58,000 crore.
• Dassault Aviation, the manufacturer of Rafales, has delivered 14 jets to the Indian Air Force so far.

(D) Technological collaboration

• The first space agreement between France and India dates back to 1964. Existing partnerships between the two nations cover almost all areas of space activity.
• Space agencies of India and France inked an agreement for cooperation for the country’s first human space Mission Gaganyaan.
• The agreement provides for CNES to support implementation of a scientific experiment plan on validation missions, exchange information on food packaging and the nutrition programme, and above all the use by Indian astronauts of French equipment, consumables and medical instruments.
• ISRO will also be launching the joint Oceansat 3-Argos mission this year.
• With the new agreement, France will be taking part in the great technological and human challenge that is the Gaganyaan programme.

Energy

• India-France alliance is the main pillar of the International Solar Alliance launched by India.

(E)Cultural ties

• Indian culture enjoys wide following amongst the people of France. An Indian Cultural Centre, named Vivekananda Cultural Centre, is being opened in Paris.
• The International Day of Yoga has been organized by the Embassy of India in Paris and other cities of France since 2016 and have received wide acclaim and press coverage.

Conclusion

• India and France both share the same vision for a new balanced multipolar world, which must be based on the rule of law.
• They also share the same vision on the main challenges of the times, be they security developments in Asia and the Indo-Pacific, or combating international terrorism. But it is by possessing the capability of ensuring national security and making strategic choices that most efficiently defend their shared principles and visions.

UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)

Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

Please register for Streak Initiative (free) through this link:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/streak-daily-initiative/

You will get following study material:-

1. Questions (PDF).
2. RSTV/Yojana monthly notes (PDF).
3. Burning issue (PDF).
4. Subject specific (PDF).
5. Mentor’s phone call for support & encouragement.

_____________________________________________

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs Based Most Probable Questions on Science and Technology by Sukanya Rana

Q1) Consider the following statements with respect to the Broadbalk Experiment.

It aims to study the optimum nutrition requirements to improve crop yield.

1. It tests the effects of different organic and inorganic fertilisers on soil fertility.
2. The experiment result states that effects of soil-borne pests and diseases are minimised in case the field gets a two year break.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2) Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct with respect to Non-Steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)?

1. It is used as a common treatment for acute pain and rheumatological diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthrosis.
2. It blocks the production of certain body chemicals that cause inflammation.
3. It may lead to higher rates of death or severe disease in patients who are hospitalised with Covid-19.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Uranium Mineral.

1. It is listed under minor minerals, the rulemaking powers on uranium have been delegated to the States through Mines & Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act.
2. Significant quantities of Uranium reserves were available in parts of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana between Seshachalam forest and Srisailam.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct with respect to FLEUDA Test:

1. It uses the gene-editing tool Crispr-Cas9 to target and identify genomic sequences of the novel coronavirus.
2. It is costlier and takes longer time to produce results than RT-PCR tests.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q5) Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct with respect to White Fungus?

1. It can be caused by the unsterile use of oxygen cylinders or the overuse of steroids.
2. It predominantly attacks body parts such as lungs, skin, nail, brain, kidney, mouth etc.
3. It is treated with antifungals and white fungal infections may eventually require surgery.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions on Science & Technology by Santosh Gupta

Q1) Consider the following statements regarding NASA’s Mars  exploration 2020 Mission:

1. The name of the rover is Perseverance
2. The space shuttle will land on Jezero Crater.
3. It also carries a Mars Helicopter  called Zhurong to test whether the helicopter can fly in the sparse atmosphere on Mars.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. All of them

Q2) Consider the following statements regarding China’s Chang’e-5 Mission:

1. It is a manned spacecraft sent to the moon to bring back rocks to be brought back to Earth.
2. Till now only the United States was able to retrieve lunar samples.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3) Consider the following statements about Tiangong space station

1. It is  second space station being built by China to be ready by 2022
2. Recently  Shenzhou-12 delivered first crew to Tianhe module

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Consider the following statements about India’s Interplanetary missions: 

1. Mangalyaan-3 will be a manned mission to Mars in 2030.
2. ISRO has planned three missions to space by 2023
3. ISRO is also planning a mission to Jupiter, tentatively called Shukrayaan.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1  and 3 only

D. None of them

Q5) This mission of NASA will map and explore the moon’s resources on and under the lunar surface, particularly water-ice.

The mission in the question refers to?

A. VIPER 

B. New horizons

C. Voyager-2

D. Hope Mission

 

---

26th Aug 2021

Emergency provisions

 

	National emergency   (art 352)	State Emergency/ President’s rule  (Art 356)	Financial emergency
Grounds	War, External aggression, armed rebellion <threat or actual>	Failure of constitutional machinery of state or can’t comply with the directions of centre	Threat to financial credit
Who declares	President after written cabinet recommendation	President	President
Parliamentary approval	w/i 1 month by both houses	w/i 2 month by both houses	w/i 2 month by both houses
Type of majority	Special	Simple	Simple
Duration	6 months from approval	6 months from approval	Indefinitely
Reapproval	Any number of times	Max 3 years	Not applicable
Revocation	By president or by LS only by simple majority	By president,	By president
Legislature and laws on state list	Continues, both parliament and state can pass laws	Suspended or dissolved and only parliament can make laws	Can issue directions to reserve money bill and finance bills for president
Executive	Continues, both union govt and state govt have powers	Dismissed, president administers through governor	Can issue direction to reduce salaries including those of supreme court and high court judge
FRs,	Art 19 automatically suspended, 20 and 21 can’t be, right to move courts for others can be suspended by presidential orders	NA	NA

Schedule 5 and 6

	Schedule 5	Schedule 6
Deal with –	Scheduled area and STs in any state except ATMM	Administration of tribal areas Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram
Autonomy	Limited autonomy. Only tribal advisory council at state level	More autonomy, autonomous districts
Schedule area	President declares, can increase or decrease the area	Governor can organize, reorganize autonomous districts
Executive power of state	Applicable but special responsibility of governor	Same
Acts of parliament or legislature	Governor can modify the law or state that they are not applicable	same

Special Provisions for the Other States

Part XXI of the Constitution
 The part ‘Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions’, includes, apart from Article 370 (Temporary Provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir) Articles 371, 371A, 371B, 371C, 371D, 371E, 371F, 371G, 371H, and 371J.
 These define special provisions with regard to other states of the Indian Union.

Special Provisions but not special treatment
 All these provisions take into account the special circumstances of individual states and lay down a wide range of specific safeguards that are deemed important for these states.
 In this range of Articles from 371 to 371J, Article 371I, which deals with Goa, stands out in the sense that it does not include any provision that can be deemed “special”.
 Article 371E, which deals with Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, too, is not that “special”.
 The special provisions laid down in Article 370 before it was modified were obviously much more far-reaching than the special provisions for other states, described in Articles 371, 371A-H, and 371J.
The following special provisions are guaranteed by the Constitution to states
other than Jammu and Kashmir:
Maharashtra and Gujarat (Article 371)
The Governor has a “special responsibility”-
 To establish “separate development boards” for “Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra”, and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat;
 To ensure “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas”, and “equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training, and adequate opportunities for employment” under the state government.

Nagaland (Article 371A, 13th Amendment Act, 1962)
 Parliament cannot legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, the Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law.
 Parliament also cannot intervene in ownership and transfer of land and its resources, without the concurrence of the Legislative Assembly of the state.

 This provision was inserted in the Constitution after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
 Also, there is a provision for a 35-member Regional Council for Tuensang district, which elects the Tuensang members in the Assembly.
 A member from the Tuensang district is Minister for Tuensang Affairs. The Governor has the final say on all Tuensang-related matters.
Assam (Article 371B, 22nd Amendment Act, 1969)
 The President of India may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the state Assembly consisting of members elected from the tribal areas of the state.
Manipur (Article 371C, 27th Amendment Act, 1971)
 The President of India may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of elected members from the Hill areas of the state in the Assembly, and entrust “special responsibility” to the Governor to ensure its proper functioning.
 The Governor has to file a report every year on this subject to the President.
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (Article 371D, 32nd Amendment Act, 1973; substituted by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, 2014)
 The President must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”.
 He may require the state government to organize “any class or classes of posts in the civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”, and allot them.
 The President has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in any university or state government-run educational institution.
 Also, he may provide for setting up of an administrative tribunal outside the jurisdiction of the High Court to deal with issues of appointment, allotment or promotion in state civil services.
 Article 371E allows for the establishment of a university in Andhra Pradesh by a law of Parliament. But this is not really a ‘special provision’ in the sense of the other provisions in this part of the Constitution.
Sikkim (Article 371F, 36th Amendment Act, 1975)
 The members of the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim shall elect the representative of Sikkim in the House of the People.
 To protect the rights and interests of various sections of the population of Sikkim, Parliament may provide for the number of seats in the Assembly, which may be filled only by candidates from those sections.
 The Governor shall have “special responsibility for peace and for an equitable arrangement for ensuring the social and economic advancement of different sections of the population”.
 All earlier laws in territories that formed Sikkim shall continue, and any adaptation or modification shall not be questioned in any court.
Mizoram (Article 371G, 53rd Amendment Act, 1986)
 This provision lays down that Parliament cannot make laws on “religious or social practices of the Mizos, Mizo customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, ownership and transfer of land… unless the Legislative
Assembly… by a resolution so decides”.
Arunachal Pradesh (Article 371H, 55th Amendment Act, 1986)
 The Governor has a special responsibility with regard to law and order, and he shall, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercise his individual judgment as to the action to be taken.
 Should a question arise over whether a particular matter is one in which the Governor is “required to act in the exercise of his individual judgment, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final”, and “shall not be called in question”
Karnataka (Article 371J, 98th Amendment Act, 2012)
 There is a provision for the establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, the working of which will be reported annually to the Assembly.
 There shall be “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said region”, and “equitable opportunities and facilities” for people of this region in government jobs and education.
 An order can be made to provide for reservation “of a proportion” of seats and jobs in educational and vocational training institutions and state government organisations respectively in the Hyderabad-
Karnataka region for individuals who belong to that region by birth or domicile.

UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)

Context

• In the past decade, there has been long term peace all over the Northeast region leading to new ideas flourishing and investments flowing in.
• There are many examples that the North East is changing as this new breed is going into unchartered territory as the region provides more opportunities than challenges.
• There are sporadic incidents, slow pace in achieving a Naga solution, but the peace has taken an irreversible stand and today in front of the mighty denim of peace for all the people.
• The emerging challenge is to invent new ways of ensuring the participation of States in the formulation of national policies and motivating them for effective implementation in key development areas.

Achievements in NER

• Today the North East is insurgency free.
• Occasional incidents arc too insignificant in front of the grater picture.
• Sooner or later the last remaining accord- the Naga Accord will be signed.

Opportunities for NER: Gateway to the East

• The region is a vantage entry point to southeastern Asian markets.
• Moreover, no less than five major bridges over Brahmaputra, along with the world’s longest bridge at Dhubri-Phulbari are in the various stages of construction which are going to unlock North East India completely.
• The two single biggest fast-moving projects is the 1500-kilometer-long Trans Arunachal Highway from Sousa north of Teepee to Naharkatiya near Nagaland through Arunachal Pradesh. The project is worth $1.4 Billion.
• The other one is the Jirbam-Imphal railway line, opening up Manipur to the vast railway network of India.
• Under the Special Accelerated Road Development Programme in North-East (SARDP-NE), the Trans-Arunachal highway is being developed.
• Under the initiative, a sub-regional Motor Vehicle Agreement allows buses and later private vehicles with a Bhutan, Bangladesh, India and Nepal (BBIN) permit.

Concerns

• Lack of Agricultural Infrastructure: The absence of efficient cold storage chains exposes cultivators to market fluctuations.
• Tourism isn’t in full capacity: Tourism, too, has not made much headway due to poor infrastructure development.
• Federal Issues: There are uncoordinated and fragmented efforts by individual states.
• High expenditure: Each Ministry of the Union Government is required to spend at least 10 per cent of its budget in the North-East.
• Lack of investment: To harness the full potential of these sectors, significant investments will be required in upgrading the region’s infrastructure, education and skill development.

SWOT Analysis of the NER

Strengths

• Several tourist attractions such as Blue Mountain (Phawngpui-Mizoram), Palak Lake (Mizoram), Kangla Fort (Manipur), Majuli (river island in Assam).
• Presence of an ethnic, tribal culture each with unique customs and traditions.
• The north-eastern region has a very well-performing gender development index.
• Rich bamboo reserves.
• The abundance of natural resources like limestone as well as water for hydropower potential.
• Safe and clean, pollution-free environment.

Weakness

• Lack of proper connectivity.
• Limited tourism infrastructure facilities.
• Scarcity of skilled and unskilled labour.
• Floods and landslides in the monsoons make places inaccessible.
• Landlocked states.

Opportunities

• Development of the handicraft industry.
• Flood management system to improve accessibility.
• Linkages to existing tourism circuits.
• Trade can drastically be improved by improving infrastructural facilities and accessibility.

Threats

• Overuse and commercialization of eco-sensitive zones could lead to depletion of resources and weakening of attraction.
• Regional connectivity concerns.
• Land banks and land availability not addressed.
• Migration of local people to urban areas for employment prospects.

Conclusion

• The North-East region has great potential to develop not just as a self, sustaining economic unit of India but also contribute to the success story of the country, which is reflected by the PM’s focus on this region.

UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)

Maintaining consistency is one of the biggest issues faced by IAS Aspirants. Streak’s initiative is to help Aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

Please register for Streak free initiative through this link:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/streak-daily-initiative/

You will get following study material:-

1. Questions (PDF).
2. RSTV/Yojana monthly notes (PDF).
3. Burning issue (PDF).
4. Subject specific (PDF).
5. Mentor’s phone call for support & encouragement.

_______________________________________________

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Current Affairs based Most Probable Questions for Prelims 2021 – by Sukanya Rana

Q1) Consider the following statements with respect to Brucellosis:

1. It is a fungal disease caused by Blastomyces which causes respiratory disease in humans.

2. Brucellosis is often spread when people eat contaminated food, which may include raw meat and unpasteurized milk.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2) With respect to mRNA vaccines, consider the following statements:

1. They are non-infectious, non-integrating in nature, and degraded by standard cellular mechanisms.

2. They are highly efficacious because of their inherent capability of being translatable into the protein structure inside the cell cytoplasm.

3. They are fully synthetic and do not require a host, like eggs or bacteria, for growth.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Q3) Consider the following statements with respect to Ultra White Paint:

1. It is made of calcium carbonate and reflects 85% of white light.

2. It remains cooler than the ambient temperature in full sunlight.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC):

1. It aims to protect the health of consumers and ensure fair practices in the food trade.

2. The Membership of the Commission is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q5) Consider the following statements with respect to Python-5 Missile:

1. It is a fifth generation infra-red air-to-air missile.

2. It has a range of around 20 km.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC PRELIMS-2021 || Most Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2021 – by Santosh Gupta

Q1) Consider the following statements regarding “Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence”:

1. It envisages responsible and human-centric development and use of artificial intelligence
2. India is one of the founding members of the GPAI initiative.
3. The GPAI initiative was conceived by Germany and France during their G7 presidencies.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1  AND 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) All of them

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2) Which of the following sectors is included in the NITI Aayog’s “National AI Strategy”:

1. Agriculture
2. MSME
3. Education
4. MOBILITY
5. Oil and Natural Gas

Select the correct code:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 5 only

(c) 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q3) Consider the following statements regarding “eVIN”

1. It digitizes Covid Vaccination supply chain.
2. Both state Government and private companies can place their orders directly for vaccine through this portal

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4) Consider the following statement about the Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunizations (GAVI):

1. It is a WHO led alliance of public health organizations of UN members. 
2. The objective is to ensure immunization for all. 

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5) Which of the following given statements is/are true about India’s supercomputer Param Siddhi?:

1. It is ranked in the top 100 among 500 most powerful non-distributed computer systems in the world.
2. It has been developed under the National Supercomputing Mission.
3. It is the fastest supercomputer of India till now

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) All of them

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Important Types of Bills in Parliament/Types of Majority

 A Bill is a draft legislative proposal that becomes a Law upon enactment. Bills could be broadly classified into two ways:

1. On the basis of the source of origin:

 (1) Government Bill

It is also called Public Bill. It is a Bill introduced by a minister in the government. It is the primary method of legislation.

(2) Private Member Bill

• It is the bill introduced by a Member of Parliament who is not a minister.
• It is important to remember that a Bill introduced by a non-minister MP of even the ruling party is called Private Member Bill.
• Such bills can only be introduced and discussed on Fridays.

 2. On the basis of the procedure of passage of the Bill:

 (1) Ordinary Bill

• An ordinary bill does not require the recommendation of the President and can be introduced in either of the Houses.
• It needs only a simple majority and the second House may choose any of the following courses of action:

1. Pass the Bill
2. Reject the Bill
3. Propose Amendment to the Bill
4. No action
   In case the Bill is rejected or amendments which are not agreeable to the originating House are proposed or inaction for a period of 180 Parliamentary days, a deadlock is deemed to have emerged. Such a deadlock could be resolved by a joint sitting notified and summoned by President under article 108.
   Once notified, neither House shall proceed forth with the pending bill. When submitted to the assent of President. Such a deadlock could be resolved by a joint sitting notified and summoned by the President under article 108. Once notified, neither House shall proceed forth with the pending bill.
   When submitted for the assent of President, after due passage in the Parliament, he has the following options:

1. Give assent to the Bill and then it becomes a Law
2. Withhold assent
3. Exercise Suspensive Veto or
4. Exercise Pocket Veto

 (2) Money Bill

It is the bill which exclusively deals with one or more money matters under article 110 which are as follows:

1. Imposition, alteration or abolition of a tax
2. Borrowing of money by the government
3. Custody of Consolidated Fund of India or Contingency Fund of India
4. Deposit or withdrawal from the above mentioned funds
5. Appropriation of money out of consolidated fund of India
6. Receipt of money upon Consolidated Fund of India or Public Accounts of India
7. Declaring any expenditure as expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

 Points to Remember about Money Bill

• A Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha and that too only after the recommendation of the President.
• It needs only a simple majorityand the speaker is required to certify it as a Money Bill prior to its transmission to Rajya Sabha.
• Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject the bill but it may suggest amendments.
• If Rajya Sabha does not pass the bill within 14 days the bill would be deemed as passed by the Rajya Sabha.
• Deadlock is not possible.
• The President may either give or withhold assent to Money Bill. But ordinarily he is expected to give his assent.
• The President cannot send a Money Bill back in the House is for reconsideration as per Article 111.

(3) Financial Bill

• It deals with non-money matters along with the money matters mentioned under article 110.
• The differences with Money Bill are:
  • Money Bill exclusively deals with money matters under article 110 only.
  • While the money is the sole purpose of a Money Bill, the primary objective of a Financial Bill in general is something else and money is only incidental to that objective.
• Financial bill requires prior recommendation of the President.
• It can be introduced only in Lok Sabhaand not in Rajya Sabha.
• However, the Rajya Sabha enjoys the same powers as are available in the case of an Ordinary Bill.
• Even a deadlock can be a possibilitywhich could be resolved by a joint sitting.

 (4) Constitutional Amendment Bill

• It is a bill to amend one or more provisions of the Constitution.
• Unlike money bill and financial bill it does not require prior recommendationof the President.
• It can be introduced in either of the Houses and would require special majorityfor passage in each House.
• There can be a deadlockbut for resolution there cannot be a joint sitting.
• If a constitutional amendment bill deals with the distribution of powers between Centre and States, it would require ratification bynot less than half of the States.
• Through the 24th Constitutional Amendment act 1971, it was ensured that the presidentshall give his assent to our Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed by the Houses.

 Types of Majority

There are 4 main types of Majority. The last one being Special Majority that has 3 sub-types.

The most important Majorities will be Simple Majority and Special Majority of the 2nd kind. We will use current strength of the Lok Sabha = 545 in the examples to explain.

1. Absolute – More than 50% of the Total Strength of the House. Meaning

1/2 x 545 = 273 or more

This majority is never used anywhere but has a huge significance. If a political party has an Absolute Majority, it means it gets to form the govt., there is stability in the house.  

2. Simple – Also called functional majority. It means Majority of more than 50% of members present and voting.

Lets assume the members present and voting is 300 (out of 545). We have 

1/2 X 300 = 150 or more

Usage

• When not stated what type of Majority in the Constitution, this majority is assumed.
• Passage of Ordinary, Money and Financial Bills.
• Passage of No-Confidence Motion, Confidence Motion, Vote of Thanks to the President, Censure Motion, Adjournment Motion, Calling Attention Motion.
• Election of the Speaker, Dy. Speaker, Dy. Chairman of RS.
• Passage of approval to President’s Rule and Financial Emergency.
• Approval by LS for discontinuance of Emergency.

3. Effective– Means Majority of the Effective Strength of the House where Effective Strength is defined as Total Strength – No. of Vacancies. Vacancies arise due to 3 reasons – Death, Disqualification, Resignation. Some sources mention Absenteeism as a vacancy but that is incorrect.

Lets assume Number of Vacancies are 6. We have

1/2 X (545-6) = 270 or more

Usage

• Removal of the VP. Initiated by the RS, requires Effective Majority in the RS, thereafter Simple Majority in the LS.
• Removal of the Speaker, Dy. Speaker and Dy. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

4. Special– This majority has 3 sub-types that require some attention.

1st kind: Not less than 2/3 of the Members present and voting.

Usage (only in 2 conditions)

• Passage of Resolution under Art. 249 and Art. 312. 

 2nd kind : Fulfills the following criteria:

1. i) Not less than 2/3 of the Members present and voting.
2. ii) Majority of the Total Strength of the House.

Eg. Out of 545, 450 Members are present and 300 vote in favor. Both the above conditions are satisfied – 300 is more than 2/3 of 450 and 300 is more than 1/2 of 545.

To make it simpler to remember, it is

Special Majority of First kind + Absolute Majority.

Usage

• Passage of Constitutional Amendment Bills under Art. 368.
• Approval by both Houses for the continuance of Emergency.
• Removal of Judges of SC, High Court, CAG, CEC.
• Approval for the creation of State Legislative Council of a State under Art. 169.

3rd kind :  This is used only once – during the impeachment of the President of India. Is mentioned in Art. 61 of the Constitution.

2/3rd Majority of the Total Strength of the House.

2/3 X 545 = 364 or more

---

In UPSC prelims, it is not the number of questions that you attempt but the number of mistakes you make decides whether you will score above 120 plus or even qualify at all. 

Based on attempts in practice tests and number of mistakes in tests, you fall into these categories:

1. Red Zone category:- mistakes 25 and above
2. Orange zone category:- mistakes 15 to 25
3. Green zone category:- mistakes less than 15.

A. RED ZONE CATEGORY: You may continue to attempt only 100% sure options until you have clarity in topic and have enhanced understanding. Once you have revised the content multiple times through keywords and notes, you can increase the number of attempts. There is no space for elimination and guesswork. Watch daily videos of Streak posted by Sukanya mam or me on Civilsdaily YouTube channel and revise the topics covered in those videos.

B. ORANGE ZONE CATEGORY: This category aspirants need to bring mistakes below by 15. Complete short keyword notes for all subjects by 5th September. Avoid guess work and learn and practice the question solving techniques such as FCE (Factual Conceptual and Elimination) approach. Watch daily videos posted on YouTube by Sukanya and me for prelims. We have covered questions on most probable topics on economy, polity, and science & tech discussion. Revise those topics if need be.

C. GREEN ZONE CATEGORY: Complete all your keyword notes by September 1st. Move on to the full test only after you have completed all keywords for static and current affairs. Continue to interlink them, do 360 exercises. and bring mistakes to below 10.

WAY FORWARD FOR ALL FOR PRELIMS-2021 in the next 50 days:

1. There are no mistakes such as silly mistakes you make because either you are not reading properly or don’t remember them. Also, it happens when you are under confident or overconfident.

2. Only intelligent elimination should be opted and that also can only work if you have clarity of topics and learn things holistically.

3. Revision should be holistic. If you have not done an in-depth study of Polity, History and Environment even once, then it is high time. Do it now before September 1st and then continue revisions. Keep making a mental map of everything you study and do it actively – not passively. Keep pen and paper always ready while reading anything and note down important keywords.

4. Do not take new sources for revision. Do not fall into the trap of grabbing and learning from new materials for the same topic.

5. No need to go for a bulky compilation for Current Affairs just before exam or right now. Focus on the monthly magazine of CD or any other which you have already been referring to but “ONLY ONE SOURCE.” 

The weightage of CA in prelims has declined to less than 20%; and if you continue to waste your valuable time on bulky round the year compilations, then it is not a good cost-benefit analysis. Focus on the concept part of any CA topic and link with it. 

6. Try to learn from the tests as much as while solving paper and FCE approach while analysing the paper. This exercise will continue up until your last test.

7. There is no need to panic even if you score less in tests. My advice would be to go back to your sources, revise it again, and try to memorise whatever you are not able to remember easily. Then, again come back and give the test and analyse the paper and note down what you do not know.

8. Enhance your knowledge and understand and learn topics by revising previous-year papers multiple times.

9. Confidence is a function of knowledge, revision, and testing. If you have not done all these three, you will never feel confident. Hence, please make it your utmost priority. Some of my students who are part of ongoing super-25 have improved their confidence and more assured towards success in prelims

10. Prelims is something which you can only qualify with proper well-planned process – no element of luck here. All you have to do is follow the process discussed above.

This has worked for me to score up to 145 twice and always 120 plus in all 6 attempts. So, I am confident that it will work for you too. 

Only barrier between your success and your failure is YOU. If required, change yourself and keep working on your strengths and weaknesses.

Please reach out to me if you face any issue or if you need any kind of support.

Thank you all.

Santosh Gupta

Prelims Coordinator, Civilsdaily

Course Coordinator for Super-25 program for Prelims-2021

To know more about UPSC Prelims 2021 Super-25 and prepare under my complete mentorship, click the link: https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/upsc-prelims-2021-super-25/

For remaining days of Prelims-2021, you may join 60-day plan under my overall guidance: https://www.civilsdaily.com/course/60-days-intensive-plan-for-focused-revision-2021/

A quick bit about Santosh Gupta Sir:

Santosh Gupta sir has scored up to 145 twice in UPSC prelims and always 120 plus in all 6 attempts. He wrote all 6 mains and appeared for Interviews 3 times. He has qualified UPSC EPFO and BPSC 56-59th also. He has been teaching and mentoring UPSC aspirants for the last 5 years with tremendous interest in environment and ecology and Polity.