These questions are from the set B of UPSC Civil Services Prelims Examination (2021) held on 10th of October. Our team has done tremendous hard work to bring the relevant and detailed answers to these questions. Students can refer to these detailed answers for their marks evaluation in Civil Services. UPSC CSE Answer Key 2021 will help the applicants to know their correct and incorrect responses and they can calculate the marks that they are going to score in the Prelims exam. The official UPSC Prelims Answer Key will be uploaded on the official website after the recruitment process is over. Till then, you can have a look at the detailed UPSC Prelims Question Paper Answers prepared by our experts which has been updated below.

Q1. With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous 

A. Jain Monks

B. Playwrights

C. Temple Architects

D. Philosophers

Answer: B

Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered equal to the works of Kalidasa.

Hastimalla wrote 8 plays including VikrantKaurava and Subhadra Harana. He was a noted Kannada poet and playwright in the Hoysala Empire.

Q2. Consider the following statements: (Tikdam)

1. The Montagu Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21.

2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

The 1st statement is wrong. When the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms were introduced in 1918 no recommendation was made for Indian women’s enfranchisement. Suffragists were active in drawing up petitions and published updates about the struggle in Stri Dharma, urging support for women’s political empowerment as a part of the anti-colonial movement against Britain. The Act did not grant women suffrage but included a clause that Indian provinces could enfranchise women if they chose to do so. It limited suffrage, barring most of India’s middle class, as it restricted the vote to those who had an annual income of more than ₹10,000–20,000; land revenues in excess of ₹250–500 per annum; or those recognised for their high level of public work or scholarship. Furthermore, it did not allow women to stand in elections. The law empowered the Imperial Legislative Assembly and the Council of State to grant the right to vote in those provinces in which legislative franchise had been approved, but the British Parliament retained the right to determine who could stand as candidates for the Legislative Councils.

The second statement is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, as finally adopted, made twenty-nine million men and six million women eligible to vote. Seats were reserved for women on a communal basis while women could contest from any general seat as well.

Q3. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian History, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.

B. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians

C. The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.

D. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Answer: A

It’s an easy question. On August 8, 1942, the Quit India Resolution was passed at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee (AICC). On the same day, Gandhi urged Indians to act as a free nation and follow non-violent civil disobedience. This took place in August Kranti Maidan.

On the other hand, on 8 August 1940, the Viceroy Lord Linlithgow made a proposal called the August Offer which expanded the Executive Council to include more Indians. 

The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow’s action of declaring India to be belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people.

The Cripps Mission happened in the months of March and April of 1942.

Q4. Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of Ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?

A Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

D. Sarojini Naidu

Answer: C

‘Songs from Prison’ was a translation from Sanskrit hymns and lyrics, from the Upanishads and other scriptures. Gandhi made these translations during his incarceration in Yeravda Prison in 1930. The other editor was John S Hoyland.

Q5. With reference to Medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?

A. Pargana-Sarkar-Suba

B. Sarkar-Paragana-Suba

C. Suba-Sarkar-Pargana

D. Pargana-Suba-Sarkar

Answer: A

The Mughal Empire was essentially military in nature where the word of the emperor was law. The administrative structure was highly centralized as viewed by historians like Irfan Habib, Athar Ali, etc. Mughal Empire was divided into Suba; Suba was further divided into Sarkar, and Sarkar was divided further into Pargana and Pargana had various Villages under them. 

Q6. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?

A. Annie Besant

B. Debendra Nath Tagore

C. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

D. Sarojini Naidu

Answer: C

This year, on September 4th, this institution was in the news when a bust of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was unveiled in the institute. The college owes its origin to John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune. What began as Hindu Female School in 1849 was renamed Bethune School in 1856. In 1856, the Government took charge of the Hindu Female School, later renamed Bethune School. The Managing Committee of the school was then formed and Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was made the Secretary. In August 1878, Bethune School was amalgamated with Banga Maha Vidyalaya which was founded by Miss Annette Akroyd with the help of Durgamohan Das, Dwarka Nath Ganguly and Anandamohan Basu

Q7. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as

A. Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement

B. Members of the Interim Government in 1946.

C. Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly.

D. Officers of the Indian National Army.

Answer: D

Quite an easy question once again. You must have read about the famous Red Fort Trials. Major General Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon and Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal were three of the senior-most officers of INA and trusted colleagues of Netaji. They underwent court-martial by the British at Red Fort in 1945 and were sentenced to death, but instead had to be released following widespread protests and unrest in India. Congress leader and the country’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, also got on board the INA officers’ legal defence team, along with party colleague Bhulabhai Desai and barrister Tej Bahadur Sapru.

Q8.  With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad state.
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire.
3. The Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Answer: A

The Nawabs of the Carnatic (also referred to as the Nawabs of Arcot) were the nawabs who ruled the Carnatic region of South India between about 1690 and 1855. The Carnatic was a dependency of Hyderabad Deccan, and was under the legal purview of the Nizam of Hyderabad, until their demise. 

The second statement is correct. The Mysore kingdom, which was founded and ruled for the most part by the Hindu Wodeyar family, initially served as a vassal state of the Vijayanagara Empire. After the decline of the Vijayanagar Empire, Mysore became an independent state under the Hindu Wodeyar Dynasty in AD 1565. 

Regarding the third statement, it is incorrect because Nawab Ali Mohammed Khan, a scion of the ancient Barha Dynasty became the first Nawab of Rohilkhand, having been previously elected as overlord by various Afghan Chiefs at the age of fourteen. He would carve out the future kingdom from the collapsing Mughal Empire and go on to found the Rohilla Dynasty. The crown would go on being held by the Rohillas until the kingdom came to an end in 1774, and thereafter the same dynasty would rule over Rampur. Most of Rohilkhand’s borders were established by Ali Mohammed Khan and largely came into existence as a check to the power of the Oudh State.

Ahmad Shah Durrani was the founder of the Durrani Empire and is regarded as the founder of the modern state of Afghanistan. Within a few years, he extended his control from Khorasan in the west to Kashmir and North India in the east, and from the Amu Darya in the north to the Arabian Sea in the south.

Q9. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.

B. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river.

C. Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River.

D. Amravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river.

Answer: A

The first statement is correct. The Ajanta caves are cut into the side of a cliff that is on the south side of a U-shaped gorge on the small river Waghora. 

The second statement is wrong. Sanchi Stupa lies in an upland plateau region, on a flat-topped sandstone hill, just west of the Betwa River and about 5 miles (8 km) southwest of Vidisha.

The third statement is wrong. The Buddhist monuments Pandavleni Caves also known by the names Pandu Lena caves and Trirashmi caves are a group of 24 rock-cut caves. It is located high up on the north face of Trivashmi hill 8 km south of Nasik city. The donative inscriptions indicate that these excavations are belonging to the Satavahana and Kshatrapa periods, spanning 2 C BC to the 3C AD. Buddha images were added to many of the caves in 5C-6C. The nearest river is the Godavari.

The fourth statement is wrong. Amravati stupa was founded by an emissary of Emperor Ashoka and its construction got completed around 2000 years ago. Amravati Stupa illustrates Lord Buddha in a human form and He is shown subduing an elephant. It is taller than the Sanchi stupa and has 95 ft high platforms, extending in the four cardinal directions, along with a huge circular dome. It is situated near river Krishna.

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The first statement is incorrect because of the UNESCO/UNICEF angle which we will come to later. The Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was in session at Karachi-then the capital of Pakistan-from 23 February 1948. It was proposed that the members would have to speak either in Urdu or in English at the Assembly. Dhirendra Nath Datta, a member of the East Pakistan Congress Party, moved an amendment motion to include Bangla as one of the languages of the Constituent Assembly.  In the same year, the Government of the Dominion of Pakistan ordained Urdu as the sole national language, sparking extensive protests among the Bengali-speaking majority of East Bengal. Facing rising sectarian tensions and mass discontent with the new law, the government outlawed public meetings and rallies. The students of the University of Dhaka and other political activists defied the law and organised a protest on 21 February 1952. The movement reached its climax when police killed student demonstrators on that day. The deaths provoked widespread civil unrest. After years of conflict, the central government relented and granted official status to the Bengali language in 1956. In Bangladesh, 21 February (Ekushey February) is observed as Language Movement Day, a national holiday. In 1999, UNESCO declared 21 February as International Mother Language Day, in tribute to the Language Movement and the ethnolinguistic rights of people around the world.

Q11. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

Tikdam is easily applicable here. With a little bit of knowledge, you know that statement 4 is correct. On the other hand, the 2nd statement is too extreme. That gives us the answer which is 1 and 4 only.

According to an inscription, the temple was constructed by Maharaja Devapala of the Kacchapagata dynasty, dated VS 1380 (1323 CE). This temple is situated on top of a small hill and shows a circular plan. The temple is built on a high plinth and shows pillared cloisters that run around the wall facing an open courtyard. The small cells that form 64 subsidiary shrines have a shallow pillared mandapa in front; while a circular main shrine facing east stands in the middle of the courtyard. The cells and the main shrine are flat-topped, but it is believed that initially, each had a shikhara on top. While the 64 Yoginis originally placed in the 64 subsidiary shrines are now missing, a Shiva linga has taken their places in each cell. 

Q12. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?

A. Dholavira

B. Kalibangan

C. Rakhigarhi

D. Ropar

Answer: A

The site was in news quite recently and it is expected that you know this. Dholavira is located on Kadir island in the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. The city had an impressive and unique water harvesting and management system. It can be noted that this area receives less than 160 cm of rain every year and is very prone to droughts.  A sophisticated water management system demonstrates the ingenuity of the Dholavira people in their struggle to survive and thrive in a harsh environment.

Q13. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?

1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

By 1623, the English East India Company had established factories at Surat, Broach, Ahmedabad, Agra, and Masulipatam. 

Q14. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?

1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 5

B. 1, 3, 4 and 6

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 5 and 6

Answer: B

The Later Gupta dynasty ruled the Magadha region in eastern India between the 6th and 7th centuries CE. The Later Guptas succeeded the imperial Guptas as the rulers of Magadha. So 1st is correct. The Paramaras of Malwa rose on the ruins of the Pratihara empire of Kanauj in 11 the Century. So statement 2 is incorrect.  The Maukharis (554 CE – 606 CE) rose as a power after the downfall of the Gupta Empire (3rd to 6th century CE) in the 6th century CE in northern India.  So 3rd is correct.

Q15. According to the Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara Empire were expert in which of the following areas?

1. Wrestling

2. Astrology

3. Accounting

4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

All claims are correct.

Q16. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.

B. Pattabhi Sitaramaih led the Quit India Movement of Andhra Region from here.

C. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.

D. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

Answer: C 

Rabindranath Tagore translated “Jana Gana Mana” from Bengali to English and also set it to music in Madanapalle.

Q17. Consider the following pairs:

(Historical place) (Well-known for)

1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines

2. Chnadra-ketugarh : Terracotta art

3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Answer: D

Chandraketugarh features many examples of terracotta art, displaying an unusual degree of precision and craftsmanship. These plaques are comparable to those found at other better-known sites such as Kaushambi and Ahichhatra. The terracotta plaques from these sites often carry similar motifs executed in nearly identical fashion. This similarity suggests an established communication link and common cultural heritage among these sites.

Ganeshwar had mainly supplied copper objects to Harappa. The archaeological site was named after the present-day village, Gilund, and is locally known as Modiya Magari which means “bald habitation mound”

Q18. Consider the following statements:

1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya 2 of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Q19. Consider the Following Statements:

1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.

2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.

3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

He died in China and hence once you eliminate this wrong statement using this Tikdam, you come to the right answer.

Q20. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.

2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property.

3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matter related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

The Dāyabhāga is a Hindu law treatise written by Jīmūtavāhana which primarily focuses on inheritance procedure. The Dāyabhāga was the strongest authority in Modern British Indian courts in the Bengal region of India, although this has changed due to the passage of the Hindu Succession Act of 1956 and subsequent revisions to the act. Based on Jīmūtavāhana’s criticisms of the Mitākṣarā, it is thought that his work is precluded by the Mitākṣarā. This has led many scholars to conclude that the Mitākṣarā represents the orthodox doctrine of Hindu law, while the Dāyabhāga represents the reformed version

Q21. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

A. Increases in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks

B. Increases in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks

C. Increase in the banking habit of the people

D. Increases in the Population of the country

Answer: C

Q22. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

1. Expansionary policies

2. fiscal stimulus

3. Inflation-indexing wages

4. Higher purchasing power

5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 3, 4 and 5 only

C 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

Q23. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Retail investors through demat accounts can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in the primary market.

2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching’ is a Government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.

3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ Is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Answer: B

Promoters/Shareholders

CDSL is promoted by Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd (BSE Ltd) – Asia’s latest Stock Exchange. Other shareholders include HDFC Bank Ltd, Standard Chartered Bank and Canara Bank.

NDS-OM is a screen-based electronic anonymous order matching system for secondary market trading in Government securities owned by RBI. Presently the membership of the system is open to entities like Banks, Primary Dealers, Insurance Companies, Mutual Funds etc. i.e entities who maintain SGL accounts with RBI.

Q24. With reference to ‘WaterCredit’, consider the following statements:

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.

2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.

3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

The Water Credit Initiative has been funded by social entrepreneur Gary White and Hollywood Actor Matt Damon through their organization Water.org which has invested US$ 2.2 million in Water Credit programs. Water credit applies the principles of microfinance to the water and sanitation sector in developing countries. By making small loans to individuals and communities who do not have access to credit, Water-Credit empowers people to address their own water and sanitation needs instead of depending on government funds and charity.

Q25. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources

2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis

3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Q26. ‘R2 code of practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of

A. environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry

B. ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International importance’ under the Ramsar Convention

C. sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands

D. ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: A

R2 means responsible recycling. R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). The standards were then accredited by ANAB, and in 2008, R2 was released.

Q27. Why there is a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.

2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment.

3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

The smelting of sulfide ores results in the emission of sulfur dioxide gas, which reacts chemically in the atmosphere to form a sulfuric acid mist.

Q28. With reference to furnace oil. Consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries.

2. Some industries use it to generate power.

3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Q29. What is blue carbon?

A. Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems

B. Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils

C. Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas

D. Carbon present in atmosphere

Answer: A

Q30. In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?

1. Fern

2. Lichen

3. Moss

4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Q31. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.

2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.

3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. 

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

The statement 1 is correct – the RBI Governor and Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government. Their names are cleared by the Cabinet Committee on appointments.

The statement 2 is wrong – According to Section 7 of the RBI Act the central government is empowered to issue directions it considers necessary for public interest to the central bank from time to time after consultation with the RBI governor. It is not the constitution.

Q32. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements :

1. All casual workers are entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage.

2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.

3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only 

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A 

Entitlements of the provident fund to be extended to contractual employees: Supreme Court

The Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, vide its judgment dated 17.01.2020 in the matter of M/s. Pawan Hans Limited & Ors. Vs. Aviation Karmachari Sanghatana & Ors. clarified that the contractual employees who are drawing wages/salary directly or indirectly are entitled to the Provident Fund Benefits.

The judgment by SC definitely brings a respite to the contractual employees of the Organization as well as other nationwide employees in such a situation, who had been seeking equality with the regular employees under the PF Trust Regulations of India.

https://www.greythr.com/blog/whether-contractual-employees-are-entitled-pf-benefits/

statement 1 is right

The Payment of Wages  Act, 1936 has been amended by Payment of Wages (Amendment) Act, 2017 (effective from 28.12.2016) to enable the employers to pay wages to their employees by (a) cash or (b) cheque or (c) crediting to their bank account. The amendment in the Act also enables the appropriate Government to specify the industrial or other establishment, by notification in the Official Gazette, which shall pay to every person employed in such industrial or other establishment the wages only by cheque or by crediting in his bank account.

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187043

Statement 3 is wrong

Q33. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

A. Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate 

B. Increase in expenditure on public projects

C. Increase in tax rates accompanied 

D. Reduction of expenditure on public projects

In case of Economic Recession, we need to increase the money supply into the economy.

Ways to boost money into the economy:

Cutting the tax rate

Reducing interest rate – easier available loans and credit

Increase the public expenditure

Answer – B

Q34. Consider the following statements: 

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. price of its substitute increases 

2. price of its complement increases

3. the good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increases its price falls

4. Its prices fall

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

When the price of a substitute for a good falls, the demand for that good will decline and when the price of the substitute rises, the demand for that good will increase.

The goods which are complementary with each other, the fall in the price of any of them would favorably affect the demand for the other.

The greater income means the greater purchasing power. Therefore, when incomes of the people increase, they can afford to buy more. It is because of this reason that increase in income has a positive effect on the demand for a good.

https://www.economicsdiscussion.net/essays/economics/6-important-factors-that-influence-the-demand-of-goods/926

Q35. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements : 

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 

2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 

3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B 

Statement 1 is wrong

RBI is the one regulating them now.

Statement 2 – is correct

The Reserve Bank on Wednesday came out with draft guidelines allowing primary urban cooperative banks (UCBs) to augment capital through issuance of equity shares, preference shares and debt instruments.

https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/rbi-issues-draft-circular-on-allowing-ucbs-to-augment-capital-121071400994_1.html

Statement 3 is correct – They were brought under the RBI’s watch in 1966, a move that brought the problem of dual regulation along with it.

RBI supervision of Cooperative Banks

Q36. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 

2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 

3. Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

The multifaceted roles played by the RBI in the payment system, monetary policy, financial stability policy, and policy coordination with the Treasury gives it the operational ability to influence government bonds’ nominal yields by setting and changing the short-term interest rate and using other tools of monetary policy as it deems appropriate.

Statement 2 – correct

https://www.adb.org/sites/default/files/publication/488961/adr-vol36no1-7-government-bond-yields-india.pdf

Statement 3 is also correct

Q37. Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 

2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 

3. Global depository receipts 

4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 4

D. 1 and 4

Answer: D

FIIs can include hedge funds, insurance companies, pension funds, investment banks, and mutual funds. FIIs can be important sources of capital in developing economies, yet many developing nations, such as India, have placed limits on the total value of assets an FII can purchase and the number of equity shares it can buy, particularly in a single company.3 This helps limit the influence of FIIs on individual companies and the nation’s financial markets, and the potential damage that might occur if FIIs fled en masse during a crisis.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/f/fii.asp

Option 2 is wrong

A global depositary receipt (GDR) is a certificate issued by a bank that represents shares in a foreign stock on two or more global markets.

GDRs typically trade on American stock exchanges as well as Eurozone or Asian exchanges.

GDRs and their dividends are priced in the local currency of the exchanges where the shares are traded.

GDRs represent an easy, liquid way for U.S. and international investors to own foreign stocks.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/g/gdr.asp

Option 3 is wrong

Q38. Consider the following statements:

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets

2. increases the foreign value of domestic currency 

3. improves the trade balance 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Economic effect of a devaluation of the currency

A devaluation of the exchange rate will make exports more competitive and appear cheaper to foreigners. This will increase demand for exports. 

statement 1 is correct.

A devaluation in the Pound means £1 is worth less compared to other foreign currencies. For example

Jan 2016. £1= $1.50

July 2016 – £1=$1.28

statement 2 is wrong.

Statement 3 not necessary – petrol

Answer – A

Q39. Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

A. Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing 

B. Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc. 

C. Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism

D. Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Tax evasion is the greatest issue.

Answer – D

Q40. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

A. Repayment of public debt

B. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

C. Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit

D. Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

If you print more money, the amount of goods doesn’t change. However, if you print money, households will have more cash and more money to spend on goods. If there is more money chasing the same amount of goods, firms will just put up prices.

Why Printing Money Causes Inflation

https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/explained-why-poorer-nations-can-t-just-print-more-money-and-become-rich-118121900185_1.html

Answer – D

Q41. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

A. Congress grass

B. Elephant grass

C. Lemongrass

D. Nut grass

Answer – C

Lemon grass

Known for its distinct smell, citronella grass (or lemon grass) is the most commonly used natural ingredient in mosquito repellants.

https://www.gardendesign.com/plants/mosquito-repellent.html

Is Lemongrass Mosquito Repellent?

Q42. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and4

Foraminifera are single-celled organisms, members of a phylum or class of amoeboid protists characterized by streaming granular ectoplasm for catching food and other uses; and commonly an external shell of diverse forms and materials. 

Copepods – It is a primary consumer

Diatoms and cyanobacteria are producers

Answer – B

Q43. Consider the following animals:

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms roll up and protect its vulnerable parts?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3

Answer – D 

These solitary, primarily nocturnal animals, are easily recognized by their full armor of scales. A startled pangolin will cover its head with its front legs, exposing its scales to any potential predator. If touched or grabbed it will roll up completely into a ball, while the sharp scales on the tail can be used to lash out. 

https://www.worldwildlife.org/species/pangolin

Option 3 – correct

Hedgehogs have a coat of stiff, sharp spines. If attacked they will curl into a prickly and unappetizing ball that deters most predators. 

https://www.nationalgeographic.com/animals/mammals/facts/hedgehog

Option 1 – correct

Q44. With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.

2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.

3. It is a legally binding international declaration.

4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.

5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 1, 3 and 5

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 5

Answer – A

The New York Declaration on Forests is a voluntary and non-legally binding political declaration which grew out of dialogue among governments, companies and civil society, spurred by the United Nations Secretary-General’s Climate Summit held in New York in 2014. The Declaration pledges to halve the rate of deforestation by 2020, to end it by 2030.

Q45. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles

2. Engines of motor vehicles

3. Microwave stoves within homes

4. Power plants

5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 3, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: D

Magnetic nanoparticles, also called as PM, are a class of nanoparticle that can be manipulated using magnetic fields. Such particles commonly consist of two components, a magnetic material, often iron, nickel and cobalt, and a chemical component that has functionality. They are fine dust emitted by metallurgical industry, vehicle brake systems are the major source of airborne magnetite at the roadside, diesel- and petrol-engine exhaust PM, power plants.

Q46. Which of the following is a filter feeder?

A. Catfish 

B. Octopus

C. Oyster

D. Pelican

Answer: C

Explanation: Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension feeding animals that feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water, typically by passing the water over a specialized filtering structure. Some animals that use this method of feeding are clams, krill, sponges, baleen whales, and many fish (including some sharks). Some birds, such as flamingos and certain species of duck, are also filter feeders. 

Although other animals at the reef are said to filter-feed, the method used by sponges is unique to this simple group of animals. In fact, sponges are named because of the many pores covering their bodies. They belong to the Phylum Porifera and may be called poriferans.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filter_feeder

https://www.coris.noaa.gov/activities/resourceCD/resources/sponge_lp.pdf

Q47. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?

A. Carbon cycle

B. Nitrogen cycle

C. Phosphorus cycle

D. Sulphur cycle

Answer: C

Explanation: In nature, phosphorus is found mostly in the form of phosphate ions. Phosphate compounds are found in sedimentary rocks, and as the rocks weather—wear down over long time periods—the phosphorus they contain slowly leaches into surface water and soils. Volcanic ash, aerosols, and mineral dust can also be significant phosphate sources, though phosphorus has no real gas phase, unlike other elements such as carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur.

https://www.britannica.com/science/phosphorus-cycle

Q48. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish 
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1,2 and 4 only

B. 2,3,4 and 5 only

C. 1,3 and 5 only

D. 1,2,3,4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation: A detritivore is a heterotrophic organism, which obtains its nutrition by feeding on detritus. Detritus is an organic matter made up of dead plant and animal material. Detritivores may also obtain nutrition by coprophagy, which is a feeding strategy involving the consumption of faeces.

Ocean decomposers have a variety of methods for gathering dead material to feed on. Echinoderms like sea urchins, sea stars and sea cucumbers hunt and eat live food, but they also move around and consume decaying organic matter that covers rocks and other surfaces.

Detritivores are often invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies and flies; molluscs such as slugs and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes and woodlice. 

Q49. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’ supported by UNEP, has been developed for

A. assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

B. enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading

C. enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries

D. assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time.

Answer: A

Explanation: The Common Carbon Metric is the calculation used to define the measurement, reporting, and verification for GHG emissions associated with the operation of building types of particular climate regions. It does not include value-based interpretation of the measurements such as weightings or benchmarking.

https://c2e2.unepdtu.org/wp-content/uploads/sites/3/2016/09/unep-sbci-common-carbon-metric.pdf

Q50.  Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: The symbiotic association between the invertebrate phylum Cnidaria (Coelenterate) and the unicellular dinoflagellate algae, called zooxanthellae, is very common. The most well-known relationship is between zooxanthellae and hermatypic, or reef-forming, corals.

Mycorrhizae are symbiotic relationships that form between fungi and plants. The fungi colonize the root system of a host plant, providing increased water and nutrient absorption capabilities while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis.

Mutualism, where two species benefit from their interaction. Some scientists believe that these are the only true examples of symbiosis. For example, termites have a mutualistic relationship with protozoa that live in the insect’s gut. The termite benefits from the ability of bacterial symbionts within the protozoa to digest cellulose. The termite itself cannot do this, and without the protozoa, it would not be able to obtain energy from its food (cellulose from the wood it chews and eats).

Q51. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

A. The Right to Equality

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. the Right to Freedom

D. the Concept of Welfare 

Answer: B

Explanation: Article 39 of the Indian Constitution requires the State to direct its policies towards securing for all its citizens the right to an adequate means of livelihood, availability of material resources, and ensuring prevention of concentration of wealth, etc.

https://www.constitutionofindia.net/constitution_of_india/directive_principles_of_state_policy/articles/Article%2039

Q52. What is the position of Right to Property in India?

A. Legal right available to citizens only

B. Legal right available to any person

C. Fundamental Right available to citizens only

D. Neither Fundamental Right nor Legal Right

Answer: A

Explanation: A citizen’s right to own private property is a human right. The state cannot take possession of it without following due procedure and authority of law, the Supreme Court has held in a judgment.

The state cannot trespass into the private property of a citizen and then claim ownership of the land in the name of ‘adverse possession’, the court said.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/private-property-is-a-human-right-says-sc/article30551819.ece

Q53. What was the exact Constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

A. A Democratic Republic

B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic 

C. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

D. A Sovereign Secular Socilaist Democratic Republic

Answer: B

Q54.  Constitutional government means

A. A representative government of a nation with federal structure

B. A government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

C. A government whose Head enjoys real powers

D. A government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: D

Q55. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to

A. Dance forms of Northwest India

B. Musical instruments

C. Prehistoric cave paintings

D. Tribal languages

Answer: D

Explanation: Can be solved by Tikdam. ‘Ho’ is a famous tribal language. 

Q56. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution

 of India

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular   

year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanations: The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. Instituted on 2 January 1954, the award is conferred in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order, without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex. The award was originally limited to achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public services, but the government expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour” in December 2011. The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President, with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year. 

The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980, during the change in the national government; and for a second time from August 1992 to December 1995, when several public-interest litigations challenged the constitutional validity of the awards. 

Q57. Consider the following statements:

1. Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World
2. Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1

C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct

D. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: D

Explanation: In a unique distinction, Hyderabad has become the only city in India to be recognised as a ‘Tree City of the World’ by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. Hyderabad is placed alongside 119 other cities from 63 countries.

The countries have been recognised for their commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests in building healthy, resilient and happy cities.

Q58. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.

2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.

3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation: Swiss tennis player Roger Federer holds the record for the most awards with six, five for Sportsman of the Year and one for Comeback of the Year. 

The inaugural winner of the award was the American golfer Tiger Woods who finished the 1999 season with eight wins, a feat not achieved since 1974, including the PGA Championship.

Formula One has won 4 awards while tennis has a maximum of 11 awards. 

Q59. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.

2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:  The disciplines added by the Japanese Olympic Committee were baseball and softball, karate, sport climbing, surfing and skateboarding, the last four of which made their Olympic debuts, and the last three of which will remain on the Olympic program.

Q60. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.

2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Q61. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.

2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.

3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 2

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: 

Right to the city has gained international recognition in the last years could be seen in the United Nations’ Habitat III process, and how the New Urban Agenda (2016) recognized the concept as the vision of “cities for all”

The right to the city is far more than the individual liberty to access urban resources: it is a right to change ourselves by changing the city. It is, moreover, a common rather than an individual right since this transformation inevitably depends upon the exercise of a collective power to reshape the processes of urbanization.

Q62. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.

2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Police Custody means that police has the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In the former, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in the latter, it is the jail.

During Judicial Custody,  the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation being necessary under the facts produced before the court.

Source: https://districts.ecourts.gov.in/sites/default/files/fct.pdf

Q63: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole because it becomes a matter of his/her right.

2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Furlough is seen as a matter of right, to be granted periodically irrespective of any reason and merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, parole is not a matter of right and may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out a sufficient case.

Prisons are a State subject: each state has different rules and regulations for it.

Q64. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

B. Ministry of Panchayat raj

C. Ministry of Rural Development

D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer – D:

Q65. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

A. Article 14

B. Article 28

C. Article 32

D. Article 44

Answer: A

Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. … “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.” 

Q66: Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

A. The independence of the judiciary is safeguard.

B. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

C. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.

D. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: A

Q67:  Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

A. A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

B. A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.

C. A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.

D. A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, and executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

Answer: A

As used in political science, the word state means a community or society politically organized under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control.

Source: https://www.iilsindia.com/study-material/528569_1600581365.pdf

Q68: With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.

2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation: Being a Court of record, the High Court is vested with powers to proceed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India itself and review a judgment,

Q69: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.

2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.

3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Citizen by Naturalization can also become Head of the state in India but not in USA

Deprivation is a compulsory termination of citizenship of India. A citizen of India by naturalization, registration, domicile and residence, may be deprived of his citizenship by an order of the Central Government if it is satisfied that:

The citizen has obtained citizenship by means of fraud, false representation or concealment of any material fact;

The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India;

The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;

The citizen has, within five years after registration or neutralization, been imprisoned in any country for two years;

The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Q70: Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

A. A committed judiciary

B. Centralization of powers

C. Elected government

D. Separation of powers

Ans: D

Explanation: Centralization of powers gives rise to monarchy. Therefore decentralization of power is required for the safeguard of liberty. Powers should be divided into central, provincial and local self-governments. This decentralization of powers leads to efficient administration. And people also start cooperating with the functioning of the government.

Q71:  The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions.

Which of the following are such conditions?

1. Burrowing animals and termites

2. Fire

3. Grazing herbivores

4. Seasonal rainfall

5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 4 and 5

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 5

Answer: Debatable

Q72: With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.

2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Distribution of water on Planet Earth:

Streams and Rivers > Atmosphere > Soil Moisture > Lakes > Groundwater > Ice Caps and Glaciers > Oceans

Q73: Consider the following statements:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.

2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.

3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.

4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.

5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5

B. 3, 4 and 5

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Moringa (botanical name Moringa oleifera) is a fast-growing, drought-resistant tree of the family Moringaceae, native to the Indian subcontinent. 

Statement 3 is correct: The Forest Rights Act confers ownership rights on minor forest produce like tamarind on tribal populations and residents of the particular forests. Today, about 90 per cent of the tamarind produced in the country comes from the forests.

Statement 4: India is the largest producer of moringa. So we can assume the option is correct.

Statement 5 is correct

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/coverage/agriculture/sweet-n-sour-55668

Q74. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

A. brown forest soil

B. fissure volcanic rock

C. granite and schist

D. shale and limestone

Answer: B

The Black soil are so called because of their black colouration and derived from the Basalt rock under semi-arid conditions. It is also known as ‘Regur’ (from the Telugu word Reguda) or black cotton soil as it is best suited for cotton cultivation. In India black soil are largely found over Deccan trap region of the states of Maharshtra, Madhya Pradesh, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Northern part of Karnataka, Gujarat, parts of Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Several theories have been put forward regarding the origin of this group of soils but most pedologists believe that these soils have been formed due to the solidification of lava spread over large areas during volcanic activity in the Deccan Plateau, in the Triassic Period. 

Q75. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of three vaccines.

2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The use of recombinant proteins allows the targeting of immune responses focused against few protective antigens. There are a variety of expression systems with different advantages, allowing the production of large quantities of proteins depending on the required characteristics. Live recombinant bacteria or viral vectors effectively stimulate the immune system as in natural infections and have intrinsic adjuvant properties. DNA vaccines, which consist of non-replicating plasmids, can induce strong long-term cellular immune responses.

Q76. In the context of hereditary disease, consider the following statements:

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg.

2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Mitochondrial replacement therapy(MRT), sometimes called mitochondrial donation, is the replacement of mitochondria in one or more cells to prevent or ameliorate disease. 

MRT originated as a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which some or all of the future baby’s mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) comes from a third party. This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases. 

In Pronuclear transfer technique MRT is done after In vitro fertilisation (IVF).  Hence Statement 1 is true. 

A child inherits mitochondrial diseases only from Mother. Hence,  Statement 2 is true. 

Q77. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of

A. Clonal propagation of crop plants

B. Developing genetically modified crop plants

C. Production of plant growth substances

D. Production of biofertilizers

Answer:  B.

Bollgard-1 and 2 are GM crops. 

Bollgard Bt cotton (single-gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop technology approved for commercialization in India in 2002, followed by Bollgard II- a double-gene technology in mid-2006, by the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) in India. 

Q78. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?

1. Area of the hole in the lid

2. Temperature of the flame

3. Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3 

Answer:  C.

In pressure cooker Technology, the temperature at which food is cooked is determined by the pressure inside it as volume is constant and pressure is regulated by the area of hole in the lid and weight of the lid.  The temperature of the flame doesn’t affect the temperature at which rice will be cooked. Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are true, while statement-2 is not true.  

Q79. Consider the following:

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/synthetic medium?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A.   

Viruses replicate only within living cells be it bacteria, fungus or other living organisms. However, bacteria and fungus can be cultured in artificial mediums in laboratory conditions. 

Q80. . Consider the following statements :

1. Adenoviruses have single- stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.

2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  B

The genome of adenovirus is double-stranded DNA, while the genome of a retrovirus is single-stranded RNA. Both types of viruses have been news over Corona Virus and development of Vaccines.  Hence, Statement-1 is not true. 

Common cold is caused by an adenovirus and other types of viruses, while AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) – a subgroup of retrovirus. Hence, Statement-2 is true. 

Q81.  How is Permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?

Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant. 

Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soul salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming

Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions, but permaculture is not so easy in such regions. 

Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming, but not necessarily so in Conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 and 3 

B. 1,2 and 4

C. 4 only

D. 2 and 3 

Answer:   B

Since the principles of permaculture discourage monoculture, it opens up the opportunity for growing a wide variety of grains, fruits and vegetables, and widens one’s food basket.  It can be possible in all kinds of climate including semi- arid regions.  Hence, Statement-3 is not correct.

Permaculture cultivation discourages monoculture practices, Improves soil fertility and Encourages mulching.  Hence, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true. 

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/coverage/environment/new-civilisation-primitive-wisdom-59125

Q82.  With reference to ‘palm oil, consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to SouthEast Asia.

2. Palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.

3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer:   B

Palm oil is native to Africa and brought to southeast Asia during colonial times, palm oil plantations now cover huge areas of Malaysia and Indonesia.  

Palm oil is used in lipstick as it holds color well, doesn’t melt at high temperatures, and has a smooth application and virtually no taste.

Palm can be used for making biodiesel also. 

Hence, Statement-1 is not true while Statement-2 and 3 are true.

Q83. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, Which one is such a river that joins the Indus directly?

A. Chenab

B. Jhelum

C. Ravi

D. Sutlej  

Answer:  D

About 17 kilometres north of Uch Sharif in Pakistan, the Sutlej unites with the Chenab river which already united with Jhelum and Ravi river, forming the Panjnad River. It finally flows into the Indus river about 100 kilometres west of the city of Bahawalpur in Pakistan. 

Q84.  With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of

A. glaciers

B. mangrove areas

C. Ramsar sites

D. saline lakes

Answer: D

All of them are saline lakes. 

Q85.  Consider the following rivers: 

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali 
3. Subarnarekha 
4. Vamshandhra

Which of the above rise from Eastern Ghats? 

A. 1 and 2 

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 and 4 

D. 1 and 3

Answer:   B

Statement-1 and 3 are incorrect, while 2 and 4 are correct. 

Brahmani and Subarnarekha originate from central Indian Plateau regions. Vamsadhara River is an east-flowing river which originates in Kalahandi district of Odisha ie. Eastern Ghats.  The River Nagavali also known as Langulya is one of the main rivers of Southern Odisha and Northern Andhra Pradesh States in India, between Rushikulya and Godavari basins. 

Q86.  Consider the following statements: 

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 ony

Answer: B

International Seabed Authority (ISA) set up under UNCLOS focuses mainly on organising, regulating and controlling all the mineral-related activities in the international seabed area that are beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. Hence, Statement-1 is not correct. 

India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor ‘ in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration. In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50% was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km. Ocean floors are rich sources of Rare Earth Minerals along with heavy metals.  

Hence, Statement-2 and 3 are correct. 

Q87. Among the following, which one of the least water- efficient crops? 

A. Sugarcane

B. Sunflower

C. Pearl millet

D. Red gram  

Answer: A .

Sugarcane is the least water efficient crop as evident from Droughts in Marathwada a few years ago. 

Q88. Consider the following Statements: 

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of the trade winds. 
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  C. 

Normally, sea surface temperature is Western parts of the ocean rather than the eastern part. This is due to the trade winds blowing from east to west  carry warm surface water from east to west and allow upwelling of cold water in eastern coastal areas. Hence, Statement-1 is true. 

In the temperate zone,  Westerlies flowing from west to east bring warm water in eastern temperate regions; hence, temperature is slightly higher than eastern part. Hence, Statement-2 is true. 

Q89.  In the context of India’s preparation for Climate- Smart Agriculture, Consider the following statements: 

1.  The ‘ Climate- Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme. 

2. The project CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research(CGIAR) headquartered in France. 

3. The international Crops Research Institute for the Semi- Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3 

Answer: D

CCAFS project’s major activities in India include test, evaluate and develop portfolios of climate-smart interventions for different agro-ecological zones and farm types; promotion of Climate Smart Agriculture (CSAT) through the Climate-Smart Village (CSV) approach; weather-based insurance; use of ICT for dissemination of climate information based agro-advisories. 

CCAFS is carried out under CGIAR headquartered In France and ICRISAT located in Patancheru, Telangana is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Hence, All the statements are true. 

Q90.  “ Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees”. This is the most likely description of 

A. Coniferous forest

B. Dry deciduous forests

C. Mangore forest

D. Tropical  rainforest

Answer:  D

All the characteristics mentioned in the question are of tropical rainforest. 

The hot and humid conditions lead to faster decay and absorption of nutrients.  Trees are only 70% of plants, the rest are creepers and climbers that reach up into the canopy and compete for water and sunlight. 

Q91. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because:

A. It is Polar in nature

B. It is a good conductor of heat

C. It has a high value of specific heat

D. It is an oxide of hydrogen

Answer – A (polarity of water)

Source:- https://www.usgs.gov/special-topic/water-science-school/science/water-qa-why-water-universal-solvent?qt-science_center_objects=0#qt-science_center_objects

Q92. With Reference to street lighting, how are sodium lamps different from LED Lamps?

1. Sodium lamp produces light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps
2. As Street lights, sodium lamps have a longer lifespan than street lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lightning

Select the correct answer from the code given below

A. 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer:  C

What’s the Major Upside to LED Lights?

There are four major advantages to LED lighting:

LEDs have an extremely long lifespan relative to every other lighting technology. 

New LEDs can last 50,000 to 100,000 hours or more. The typical lifespan for a fluorescent bulb, by comparison, is 10-25% as long at best (roughly 10,000 hours).

LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting technology. There are several reasons for this to include the fact they waste very little energy in the form of infrared radiation (much different than most conventional lights to include fluorescent lights), and they emit light directionally (over 180 degrees versus 360 degrees which means there are far fewer losses from the need to redirect or reflect light).

Very high light quality.

Very low maintenance costs and hassle

Sodium vapour lights have the worst colour rendering on the market. LPS lamps in particular are monochromatic which means that the objects illuminated by them appear shadowy black rather than the colour you would see during daylight. HPS lamps are better but are still surpassed by virtually every other light on the market.  

https://www.stouchlighting.com/blog/led-vs-hps-lps-high-and-low-pressure-sodium

https://www.energy.gov/energysaver/led-lighting

Q93. The term ACE-2 is talked about in the context of?

A. Genes introduced in the genetically modified crops

B. Development of India’s own navigation satellite system

C. Radio collar for wildlife trafficking

D. Spread of viral diseases

Answer – D

Solution:- 

The SARS-CoV-2 virus enters a human cell through ‘ACE2 receptors’, which are enzymes that generate small proteins that are useful for the cell. The coronaviruses have horn-like projections, called spike proteins. The spike proteins bind to ACE2, like a key inserted into a lock, and the virus gains entry into the cell and infects it. 

Source The Hindu https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/ace2-receptors-how-the-sars-cov-2-virus-transmits-so-fast/article33956645.ece/amp/

Q94. Bisphenol A(BPA), a cause of concern is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastic?

A. Low-density Polyethylene

B. Polycarbonate

C. Polyethylene terephthalate

D. polyvinyl chloride

Answer- B

Solution:-  In the news because BPA mimics estrogen and was found in feeding bottles of infants. It is considered carcinogenic and linked with lower IQ in newborns

Source:- although it is an old news, yet every time you look at any water bottle it says BPA free.

https://www.google.com/amp/s/indianexpress.com/article/india/study-shows-use-of-banned-synthetic-in-feeding-bottles-5741631/lite/

Q95. Triclosan is considered harmful when exposed to. high levels for a very long time, is most likely present in which of the following?

A. food preservatives

B. Food ripening substance

C. Reused plastic containers 

D. Toiletries

Solution:- D 

In news due to Covid hand washing protocols. A study by IIT HYDERABAD found its harmful uses. Common sense discussion – the killing of good bacteria due to frequent hand washing

Source:- 

https://m.timesofindia.com/city/hyderabad/triclosan-in-soap-toothpaste-harmful-to-health-iit-h/amp_articleshow/79747418.cms

Q96. Which one of the following is the reason why astronomical distances are measured in light years?

A. Distance among stellar bodies do not change

B. Gravity of stellar bodies do not change

C. Light always travels in a straight line

D. Speed of light is always the same

Answer: D

Solution:- The only thing absolute in this universe according to Einstein is the speed of light, rest everything is relative. So to get an idea of interstellar distance, Light Year is the best method, as it is really large and appropriate for such lengths and is even concise, as no one would remember all the digits or exponents when the distance is expressed in Kilometres.

Q97. We adopted our parliamentary democracy based on the British model,  but how does our model differ from the British model?

1. As Regards legislation the British parliament is Supreme or sovereign, but in India the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India matters related to the constitutionality of an amendment of an act of the parliament are referred to the constitutional bench by the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only 

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Solution :- Laxmikant chapter Parliamentary System last page – Distinction between indian and British Models

Q98. With reference to the union government consider the following statement

1. N Gopalaswamy Ayengar Committee suggested that a minister and a Secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970 the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission 1966 and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Source :- https://darpg.gov.in/about-department-0

Q99. Right to Privacy is protected under which article of the constitution of India?

A. Art 15

B. Art 19

C. Art 21

D. Art 29

Solution :- C

Direct and repeated question. Justice K S Puttaswamy judgement of supreme court asked before in main exam as well

Source:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/news/surveillance-and-human-right/

Q100. Consider the following statement

1. In India there is no law restricting the candidate from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from 3 constituencies
2. In 1991 lok sabha  elections Sri Devi Lal contested from 3 lok sabha constituencies
3. As per the existing rules if a  candidate contests  in one Lok Sabha elections from many constituencies, his/her party  should bear the cost of bye elections vacated by him or her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer- A 

Solution :- Laxmikant Electoral Reform page 71.3 contestants restricted to two constituencies

Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered equal to the works of Kalidasa.

Hastimalla wrote 8 plays including VikrantKaurava and Subhadra Harana. He was a noted Kannada poet and playwright in the Hoysala Empire.

Q2. Consider the following statements: (Tikdam)

1. The Montagu Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21.

2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

The 1st statement is wrong. When the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms were introduced in 1918 no recommendation was made for Indian women’s enfranchisement. Suffragists were active in drawing up petitions and published updates about the struggle in Stri Dharma, urging support for women’s political empowerment as a part of the anti-colonial movement against Britain. The Act did not grant women suffrage but included a clause that Indian provinces could enfranchise women if they chose to do so. It limited suffrage, barring most of India’s middle class, as it restricted the vote to those who had an annual income of more than ₹10,000–20,000; land revenues in excess of ₹250–500 per annum; or those recognised for their high level of public work or scholarship. Furthermore, it did not allow women to stand in elections. The law empowered the Imperial Legislative Assembly and the Council of State to grant the right to vote in those provinces in which legislative franchise had been approved, but the British Parliament retained the right to determine who could stand as candidates for the Legislative Councils.

The second statement is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, as finally adopted, made twenty-nine million men and six million women eligible to vote. Seats were reserved for women on a communal basis while women could contest from any general seat as well.

Q3. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian History, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.

B. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians

C. The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.

D. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Answer: A

It’s an easy question. On August 8, 1942, the Quit India Resolution was passed at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee (AICC). On the same day, Gandhi urged Indians to act as a free nation and follow non-violent civil disobedience. This took place in August Kranti Maidan.

On the other hand, on 8 August 1940, the Viceroy Lord Linlithgow made a proposal called the August Offer which expanded the Executive Council to include more Indians. 

The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow’s action of declaring India to be belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people.

The Cripps Mission happened in the months of March and April of 1942.

Q4. Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of Ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?

A Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

D. Sarojini Naidu

Answer: C

‘Songs from Prison’ was a translation from Sanskrit hymns and lyrics, from the Upanishads and other scriptures. Gandhi made these translations during his incarceration in Yeravda Prison in 1930. The other editor was John S Hoyland.

Q5. With reference to Medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?

A. Pargana-Sarkar-Suba

B. Sarkar-Paragana-Suba

C. Suba-Sarkar-Pargana

D. Pargana-Suba-Sarkar

Answer: A

The Mughal Empire was essentially military in nature where the word of the emperor was law. The administrative structure was highly centralized as viewed by historians like Irfan Habib, Athar Ali, etc. Mughal Empire was divided into Suba; Suba was further divided into Sarkar, and Sarkar was divided further into Pargana and Pargana had various Villages under them. 

Q6. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?

A. Annie Besant

B. Debendra Nath Tagore

C. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

D. Sarojini Naidu

Answer: C

This year, on September 4th, this institution was in the news when a bust of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was unveiled in the institute. The college owes its origin to John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune. What began as Hindu Female School in 1849 was renamed Bethune School in 1856. In 1856, the Government took charge of the Hindu Female School, later renamed Bethune School. The Managing Committee of the school was then formed and Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was made the Secretary. In August 1878, Bethune School was amalgamated with Banga Maha Vidyalaya which was founded by Miss Annette Akroyd with the help of Durgamohan Das, Dwarka Nath Ganguly and Anandamohan Basu

Q7. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as

A. Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement

B. Members of the Interim Government in 1946.

C. Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly.

D. Officers of the Indian National Army.

Answer: D

Quite an easy question once again. You must have read about the famous Red Fort Trials. Major General Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon and Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal were three of the senior-most officers of INA and trusted colleagues of Netaji. They underwent court-martial by the British at Red Fort in 1945 and were sentenced to death, but instead had to be released following widespread protests and unrest in India. Congress leader and the country’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, also got on board the INA officers’ legal defence team, along with party colleague Bhulabhai Desai and barrister Tej Bahadur Sapru.

Q8.  With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad state.
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire.
3. The Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Answer: A

The Nawabs of the Carnatic (also referred to as the Nawabs of Arcot) were the nawabs who ruled the Carnatic region of South India between about 1690 and 1855. The Carnatic was a dependency of Hyderabad Deccan, and was under the legal purview of the Nizam of Hyderabad, until their demise. 

The second statement is correct. The Mysore kingdom, which was founded and ruled for the most part by the Hindu Wodeyar family, initially served as a vassal state of the Vijayanagara Empire. After the decline of the Vijayanagar Empire, Mysore became an independent state under the Hindu Wodeyar Dynasty in AD 1565. 

Regarding the third statement, it is incorrect because Nawab Ali Mohammed Khan, a scion of the ancient Barha Dynasty became the first Nawab of Rohilkhand, having been previously elected as overlord by various Afghan Chiefs at the age of fourteen. He would carve out the future kingdom from the collapsing Mughal Empire and go on to found the Rohilla Dynasty. The crown would go on being held by the Rohillas until the kingdom came to an end in 1774, and thereafter the same dynasty would rule over Rampur. Most of Rohilkhand’s borders were established by Ali Mohammed Khan and largely came into existence as a check to the power of the Oudh State.

Ahmad Shah Durrani was the founder of the Durrani Empire and is regarded as the founder of the modern state of Afghanistan. Within a few years, he extended his control from Khorasan in the west to Kashmir and North India in the east, and from the Amu Darya in the north to the Arabian Sea in the south.

Q9. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.

B. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river.

C. Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River.

D. Amravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river.

Answer: A

The first statement is correct. The Ajanta caves are cut into the side of a cliff that is on the south side of a U-shaped gorge on the small river Waghora. 

The second statement is wrong. Sanchi Stupa lies in an upland plateau region, on a flat-topped sandstone hill, just west of the Betwa River and about 5 miles (8 km) southwest of Vidisha.

The third statement is wrong. The Buddhist monuments Pandavleni Caves also known by the names Pandu Lena caves and Trirashmi caves are a group of 24 rock-cut caves. It is located high up on the north face of Trivashmi hill 8 km south of Nasik city. The donative inscriptions indicate that these excavations are belonging to the Satavahana and Kshatrapa periods, spanning 2 C BC to the 3C AD. Buddha images were added to many of the caves in 5C-6C. The nearest river is the Godavari.

The fourth statement is wrong. Amravati stupa was founded by an emissary of Emperor Ashoka and its construction got completed around 2000 years ago. Amravati Stupa illustrates Lord Buddha in a human form and He is shown subduing an elephant. It is taller than the Sanchi stupa and has 95 ft high platforms, extending in the four cardinal directions, along with a huge circular dome. It is situated near river Krishna.

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The first statement is incorrect because of the UNESCO/UNICEF angle which we will come to later. The Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was in session at Karachi-then the capital of Pakistan-from 23 February 1948. It was proposed that the members would have to speak either in Urdu or in English at the Assembly. Dhirendra Nath Datta, a member of the East Pakistan Congress Party, moved an amendment motion to include Bangla as one of the languages of the Constituent Assembly.  In the same year, the Government of the Dominion of Pakistan ordained Urdu as the sole national language, sparking extensive protests among the Bengali-speaking majority of East Bengal. Facing rising sectarian tensions and mass discontent with the new law, the government outlawed public meetings and rallies. The students of the University of Dhaka and other political activists defied the law and organised a protest on 21 February 1952. The movement reached its climax when police killed student demonstrators on that day. The deaths provoked widespread civil unrest. After years of conflict, the central government relented and granted official status to the Bengali language in 1956. In Bangladesh, 21 February (Ekushey February) is observed as Language Movement Day, a national holiday. In 1999, UNESCO declared 21 February as International Mother Language Day, in tribute to the Language Movement and the ethnolinguistic rights of people around the world.

Q11. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

Tikdam is easily applicable here. With a little bit of knowledge, you know that statement 4 is correct. On the other hand, the 2nd statement is too extreme. That gives us the answer which is 1 and 4 only.

According to an inscription, the temple was constructed by Maharaja Devapala of the Kacchapagata dynasty, dated VS 1380 (1323 CE). This temple is situated on top of a small hill and shows a circular plan. The temple is built on a high plinth and shows pillared cloisters that run around the wall facing an open courtyard. The small cells that form 64 subsidiary shrines have a shallow pillared mandapa in front; while a circular main shrine facing east stands in the middle of the courtyard. The cells and the main shrine are flat-topped, but it is believed that initially, each had a shikhara on top. While the 64 Yoginis originally placed in the 64 subsidiary shrines are now missing, a Shiva linga has taken their places in each cell. 

Q12. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?

A. Dholavira

B. Kalibangan

C. Rakhigarhi

D. Ropar

Answer: A

The site was in news quite recently and it is expected that you know this. Dholavira is located on Kadir island in the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. The city had an impressive and unique water harvesting and management system. It can be noted that this area receives less than 160 cm of rain every year and is very prone to droughts.  A sophisticated water management system demonstrates the ingenuity of the Dholavira people in their struggle to survive and thrive in a harsh environment.

Q13. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?

1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

By 1623, the English East India Company had established factories at Surat, Broach, Ahmedabad, Agra, and Masulipatam. 

Q14. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?

1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 5

B. 1, 3, 4 and 6

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 5 and 6

Answer: B

The Later Gupta dynasty ruled the Magadha region in eastern India between the 6th and 7th centuries CE. The Later Guptas succeeded the imperial Guptas as the rulers of Magadha. So 1st is correct. The Paramaras of Malwa rose on the ruins of the Pratihara empire of Kanauj in 11 the Century. So statement 2 is incorrect.  The Maukharis (554 CE – 606 CE) rose as a power after the downfall of the Gupta Empire (3rd to 6th century CE) in the 6th century CE in northern India.  So 3rd is correct.

Q15. According to the Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara Empire were expert in which of the following areas?

1. Wrestling

2. Astrology

3. Accounting

4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

All claims are correct.

Q16. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.

B. Pattabhi Sitaramaih led the Quit India Movement of Andhra Region from here.

C. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.

D. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

Answer: C 

Rabindranath Tagore translated “Jana Gana Mana” from Bengali to English and also set it to music in Madanapalle.

Q17. Consider the following pairs:

(Historical place) (Well-known for)

1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines

2. Chnadra-ketugarh : Terracotta art

3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Answer: D

Chandraketugarh features many examples of terracotta art, displaying an unusual degree of precision and craftsmanship. These plaques are comparable to those found at other better-known sites such as Kaushambi and Ahichhatra. The terracotta plaques from these sites often carry similar motifs executed in nearly identical fashion. This similarity suggests an established communication link and common cultural heritage among these sites.

Ganeshwar had mainly supplied copper objects to Harappa. The archaeological site was named after the present-day village, Gilund, and is locally known as Modiya Magari which means “bald habitation mound”

Q18. Consider the following statements:

1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya 2 of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Q19. Consider the Following Statements:

1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.

2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.

3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

He died in China and hence once you eliminate this wrong statement using this Tikdam, you come to the right answer.

Q20. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.

2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property.

3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matter related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

The Dāyabhāga is a Hindu law treatise written by Jīmūtavāhana which primarily focuses on inheritance procedure. The Dāyabhāga was the strongest authority in Modern British Indian courts in the Bengal region of India, although this has changed due to the passage of the Hindu Succession Act of 1956 and subsequent revisions to the act. Based on Jīmūtavāhana’s criticisms of the Mitākṣarā, it is thought that his work is precluded by the Mitākṣarā. This has led many scholars to conclude that the Mitākṣarā represents the orthodox doctrine of Hindu law, while the Dāyabhāga represents the reformed version

Q21. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

A. Increases in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks

B. Increases in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks

C. Increase in the banking habit of the people

D. Increases in the Population of the country

Answer: C

Q22. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

1. Expansionary policies

2. fiscal stimulus

3. Inflation-indexing wages

4. Higher purchasing power

5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 3, 4 and 5 only

C 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

Q23. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Retail investors through demat accounts can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in the primary market.

2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching’ is a Government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.

3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ Is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

Answer: B

Promoters/Shareholders

CDSL is promoted by Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd (BSE Ltd) – Asia’s latest Stock Exchange. Other shareholders include HDFC Bank Ltd, Standard Chartered Bank and Canara Bank.

NDS-OM is a screen-based electronic anonymous order matching system for secondary market trading in Government securities owned by RBI. Presently the membership of the system is open to entities like Banks, Primary Dealers, Insurance Companies, Mutual Funds etc. i.e entities who maintain SGL accounts with RBI.

Q24. With reference to ‘WaterCredit’, consider the following statements:

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.

2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.

3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

The Water Credit Initiative has been funded by social entrepreneur Gary White and Hollywood Actor Matt Damon through their organization Water.org which has invested US$ 2.2 million in Water Credit programs. Water credit applies the principles of microfinance to the water and sanitation sector in developing countries. By making small loans to individuals and communities who do not have access to credit, Water-Credit empowers people to address their own water and sanitation needs instead of depending on government funds and charity.

Q25. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources

2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis

3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: B

Q26. ‘R2 code of practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of

A. environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry

B. ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International importance’ under the Ramsar Convention

C. sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands

D. ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: A

R2 means responsible recycling. R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI). The standards were then accredited by ANAB, and in 2008, R2 was released.

Q27. Why there is a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.

2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment.

3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

The smelting of sulfide ores results in the emission of sulfur dioxide gas, which reacts chemically in the atmosphere to form a sulfuric acid mist.

Q28. With reference to furnace oil. Consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries.

2. Some industries use it to generate power.

3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Q29. What is blue carbon?

A. Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems

B. Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils

C. Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas

D. Carbon present in atmosphere

Answer: A

Q30. In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?

1. Fern

2. Lichen

3. Moss

4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Q31. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.

2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.

3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. 

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only.

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

The statement 1 is correct – the RBI Governor and Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government. Their names are cleared by the Cabinet Committee on appointments.

The statement 2 is wrong – According to Section 7 of the RBI Act the central government is empowered to issue directions it considers necessary for public interest to the central bank from time to time after consultation with the RBI governor. It is not the constitution.

Q32. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements :

1. All casual workers are entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage.

2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.

3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only 

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A 

Entitlements of the provident fund to be extended to contractual employees: Supreme Court

The Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, vide its judgment dated 17.01.2020 in the matter of M/s. Pawan Hans Limited & Ors. Vs. Aviation Karmachari Sanghatana & Ors. clarified that the contractual employees who are drawing wages/salary directly or indirectly are entitled to the Provident Fund Benefits.

The judgment by SC definitely brings a respite to the contractual employees of the Organization as well as other nationwide employees in such a situation, who had been seeking equality with the regular employees under the PF Trust Regulations of India.

https://www.greythr.com/blog/whether-contractual-employees-are-entitled-pf-benefits/

statement 1 is right

The Payment of Wages  Act, 1936 has been amended by Payment of Wages (Amendment) Act, 2017 (effective from 28.12.2016) to enable the employers to pay wages to their employees by (a) cash or (b) cheque or (c) crediting to their bank account. The amendment in the Act also enables the appropriate Government to specify the industrial or other establishment, by notification in the Official Gazette, which shall pay to every person employed in such industrial or other establishment the wages only by cheque or by crediting in his bank account.

https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187043

Statement 3 is wrong

Q33. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

A. Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate 

B. Increase in expenditure on public projects

C. Increase in tax rates accompanied 

D. Reduction of expenditure on public projects

In case of Economic Recession, we need to increase the money supply into the economy.

Ways to boost money into the economy:

Cutting the tax rate

Reducing interest rate – easier available loans and credit

Increase the public expenditure

Answer – B

Q34. Consider the following statements: 

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. price of its substitute increases 

2. price of its complement increases

3. the good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increases its price falls

4. Its prices fall

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

When the price of a substitute for a good falls, the demand for that good will decline and when the price of the substitute rises, the demand for that good will increase.

The goods which are complementary with each other, the fall in the price of any of them would favorably affect the demand for the other.

The greater income means the greater purchasing power. Therefore, when incomes of the people increase, they can afford to buy more. It is because of this reason that increase in income has a positive effect on the demand for a good.

https://www.economicsdiscussion.net/essays/economics/6-important-factors-that-influence-the-demand-of-goods/926

Q35. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements : 

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 

2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 

3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B 

Statement 1 is wrong

RBI is the one regulating them now.

Statement 2 – is correct

The Reserve Bank on Wednesday came out with draft guidelines allowing primary urban cooperative banks (UCBs) to augment capital through issuance of equity shares, preference shares and debt instruments.

https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/rbi-issues-draft-circular-on-allowing-ucbs-to-augment-capital-121071400994_1.html

Statement 3 is correct – They were brought under the RBI’s watch in 1966, a move that brought the problem of dual regulation along with it.

RBI supervision of Cooperative Banks

Q36. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 

2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 

3. Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

The multifaceted roles played by the RBI in the payment system, monetary policy, financial stability policy, and policy coordination with the Treasury gives it the operational ability to influence government bonds’ nominal yields by setting and changing the short-term interest rate and using other tools of monetary policy as it deems appropriate.

Statement 2 – correct

https://www.adb.org/sites/default/files/publication/488961/adr-vol36no1-7-government-bond-yields-india.pdf

Statement 3 is also correct

Q37. Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 

2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 

3. Global depository receipts 

4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 4

D. 1 and 4

Answer: D

FIIs can include hedge funds, insurance companies, pension funds, investment banks, and mutual funds. FIIs can be important sources of capital in developing economies, yet many developing nations, such as India, have placed limits on the total value of assets an FII can purchase and the number of equity shares it can buy, particularly in a single company.3 This helps limit the influence of FIIs on individual companies and the nation’s financial markets, and the potential damage that might occur if FIIs fled en masse during a crisis.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/f/fii.asp

Option 2 is wrong

A global depositary receipt (GDR) is a certificate issued by a bank that represents shares in a foreign stock on two or more global markets.

GDRs typically trade on American stock exchanges as well as Eurozone or Asian exchanges.

GDRs and their dividends are priced in the local currency of the exchanges where the shares are traded.

GDRs represent an easy, liquid way for U.S. and international investors to own foreign stocks.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/g/gdr.asp

Option 3 is wrong

Q38. Consider the following statements:

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets

2. increases the foreign value of domestic currency 

3. improves the trade balance 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3

https://www.economicshelp.org/macroeconomics/exchangerate/effects-devaluation/

A devaluation of the exchange rate will make exports more competitive and appear cheaper to foreigners. This will increase demand for exports. 

statement 1 is correct.

A devaluation in the Pound means £1 is worth less compared to other foreign currencies. For example

Jan 2016. £1= $1.50

July 2016 – £1=$1.28

statement 2 is wrong.

Statement 3 not necessary – petrol

Answer – A

Q39. Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

A. Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing 

B. Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc. 

C. Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism

D. Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Tax evasion is the greatest issue.

Answer – D

Q40. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

A. Repayment of public debt

B. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

C. Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit

D. Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

If you print more money, the amount of goods doesn’t change. However, if you print money, households will have more cash and more money to spend on goods. If there is more money chasing the same amount of goods, firms will just put up prices.

https://www.economicshelp.org/blog/797/economics/why-printing-money-causes-inflation/

https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/explained-why-poorer-nations-can-t-just-print-more-money-and-become-rich-118121900185_1.html

Answer – D

Q41. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

A. Congress grass

B. Elephant grass

C. Lemongrass

D. Nut grass

Answer – C

Lemon grass

Known for its distinct smell, citronella grass (or lemon grass) is the most commonly used natural ingredient in mosquito repellants.

https://www.gardendesign.com/plants/mosquito-repellent.html

https://www.conserve-energy-future.com/is-lemongrass-mosquito-repellent.php

Q42. Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and4

Foraminifera are single-celled organisms, members of a phylum or class of amoeboid protists characterized by streaming granular ectoplasm for catching food and other uses; and commonly an external shell of diverse forms and materials. 

Copepods – It is a primary consumer

Diatoms and cyanobacteria are producers

Answer – B

Q43. Consider the following animals:

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms roll up and protect its vulnerable parts?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 3

Answer – D 

These solitary, primarily nocturnal animals, are easily recognized by their full armor of scales. A startled pangolin will cover its head with its front legs, exposing its scales to any potential predator. If touched or grabbed it will roll up completely into a ball, while the sharp scales on the tail can be used to lash out. 

https://www.worldwildlife.org/species/pangolin

Option 3 – correct

Hedgehogs have a coat of stiff, sharp spines. If attacked they will curl into a prickly and unappetizing ball that deters most predators. 

https://www.nationalgeographic.com/animals/mammals/facts/hedgehog

Option 1 – correct

Q44. With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.

2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.

3. It is a legally binding international declaration.

4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.

5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 1, 3 and 5

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 5

Answer – A

The New York Declaration on Forests is a voluntary and non-legally binding political declaration which grew out of dialogue among governments, companies and civil society, spurred by the United Nations Secretary-General’s Climate Summit held in New York in 2014. The Declaration pledges to halve the rate of deforestation by 2020, to end it by 2030.

Q45. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles

2. Engines of motor vehicles

3. Microwave stoves within homes

4. Power plants

5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 3, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: D

Magnetic nanoparticles, also called as PM, are a class of nanoparticle that can be manipulated using magnetic fields. Such particles commonly consist of two components, a magnetic material, often iron, nickel and cobalt, and a chemical component that has functionality. They are fine dust emitted by metallurgical industry, vehicle brake systems are the major source of airborne magnetite at the roadside, diesel- and petrol-engine exhaust PM, power plants.

Q46. Which of the following is a filter feeder?

A. Catfish 

B. Octopus

C. Oyster

D. Pelican

Answer: C

Explanation: Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension feeding animals that feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water, typically by passing the water over a specialized filtering structure. Some animals that use this method of feeding are clams, krill, sponges, baleen whales, and many fish (including some sharks). Some birds, such as flamingos and certain species of duck, are also filter feeders. 

Although other animals at the reef are said to filter-feed, the method used by sponges is unique to this simple group of animals. In fact, sponges are named because of the many pores covering their bodies. They belong to the Phylum Porifera and may be called poriferans.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filter_feeder

https://www.coris.noaa.gov/activities/resourceCD/resources/sponge_lp.pdf

Q47. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?

A. Carbon cycle

B. Nitrogen cycle

C. Phosphorus cycle

D. Sulphur cycle

Answer: C

Explanation: In nature, phosphorus is found mostly in the form of phosphate ions. Phosphate compounds are found in sedimentary rocks, and as the rocks weather—wear down over long time periods—the phosphorus they contain slowly leaches into surface water and soils. Volcanic ash, aerosols, and mineral dust can also be significant phosphate sources, though phosphorus has no real gas phase, unlike other elements such as carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur.

https://www.britannica.com/science/phosphorus-cycle

Q48. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish 
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1,2 and 4 only

B. 2,3,4 and 5 only

C. 1,3 and 5 only

D. 1,2,3,4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation: A detritivore is a heterotrophic organism, which obtains its nutrition by feeding on detritus. Detritus is an organic matter made up of dead plant and animal material. Detritivores may also obtain nutrition by coprophagy, which is a feeding strategy involving the consumption of faeces.

Ocean decomposers have a variety of methods for gathering dead material to feed on. Echinoderms like sea urchins, sea stars and sea cucumbers hunt and eat live food, but they also move around and consume decaying organic matter that covers rocks and other surfaces.

Detritivores are often invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies and flies; molluscs such as slugs and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes and woodlice. 

Q49. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’ supported by UNEP, has been developed for

A. assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

B. enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading

C. enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries

D. assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time.

Answer: A

Explanation: The Common Carbon Metric is the calculation used to define the measurement, reporting, and verification for GHG emissions associated with the operation of building types of particular climate regions. It does not include value-based interpretation of the measurements such as weightings or benchmarking.

https://c2e2.unepdtu.org/wp-content/uploads/sites/3/2016/09/unep-sbci-common-carbon-metric.pdf

Q50.  Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: The symbiotic association between the invertebrate phylum Cnidaria (Coelenterate) and the unicellular dinoflagellate algae, called zooxanthellae, is very common. The most well-known relationship is between zooxanthellae and hermatypic, or reef-forming, corals.

Mycorrhizae are symbiotic relationships that form between fungi and plants. The fungi colonize the root system of a host plant, providing increased water and nutrient absorption capabilities while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis.

Mutualism, where two species benefit from their interaction. Some scientists believe that these are the only true examples of symbiosis. For example, termites have a mutualistic relationship with protozoa that live in the insect’s gut. The termite benefits from the ability of bacterial symbionts within the protozoa to digest cellulose. The termite itself cannot do this, and without the protozoa, it would not be able to obtain energy from its food (cellulose from the wood it chews and eats).

Q51. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

A. The Right to Equality

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. the Right to Freedom

D. the Concept of Welfare 

Answer: B

Explanation: Article 39 of the Indian Constitution requires the State to direct its policies towards securing for all its citizens the right to an adequate means of livelihood, availability of material resources, and ensuring prevention of concentration of wealth, etc.

https://www.constitutionofindia.net/constitution_of_india/directive_principles_of_state_policy/articles/Article%2039

Q52. What is the position of Right to Property in India?

A. Legal right available to citizens only

B. Legal right available to any person

C. Fundamental Right available to citizens only

D. Neither Fundamental Right nor Legal Right

Answer: A

Explanation: A citizen’s right to own private property is a human right. The state cannot take possession of it without following due procedure and authority of law, the Supreme Court has held in a judgment.

The state cannot trespass into the private property of a citizen and then claim ownership of the land in the name of ‘adverse possession’, the court said.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/private-property-is-a-human-right-says-sc/article30551819.ece

Q53. What was the exact Constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

A. A Democratic Republic

B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic 

C. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic

D. A Sovereign Secular Socilaist Democratic Republic

Answer: B

Q54.  Constitutional government means

A. A representative government of a nation with federal structure

B. A government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

C. A government whose Head enjoys real powers

D. A government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: D

Q55. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to

A. Dance forms of Northwest India

B. Musical instruments

C. Prehistoric cave paintings

D. Tribal languages

Answer: D

Explanation: Can be solved by Tikdam. ‘Ho’ is a famous tribal language. 

Q56. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution

 of India

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular   

year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanations: The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. Instituted on 2 January 1954, the award is conferred in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order, without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex. The award was originally limited to achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public services, but the government expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour” in December 2011. The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President, with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year. 

The Bharat Ratna, along with other personal civil honours, was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980, during the change in the national government; and for a second time from August 1992 to December 1995, when several public-interest litigations challenged the constitutional validity of the awards. 

Q57. Consider the following statements:

1. Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World
2. Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1

C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct

D. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Answer: D

Explanation: In a unique distinction, Hyderabad has become the only city in India to be recognised as a ‘Tree City of the World’ by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. Hyderabad is placed alongside 119 other cities from 63 countries.

The countries have been recognised for their commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests in building healthy, resilient and happy cities.

Q58. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.

2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.

3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation: Swiss tennis player Roger Federer holds the record for the most awards with six, five for Sportsman of the Year and one for Comeback of the Year. 

The inaugural winner of the award was the American golfer Tiger Woods who finished the 1999 season with eight wins, a feat not achieved since 1974, including the PGA Championship.

Formula One has won 4 awards while tennis has a maximum of 11 awards. 

Q59. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.

2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:  The disciplines added by the Japanese Olympic Committee were baseball and softball, karate, sport climbing, surfing and skateboarding, the last four of which made their Olympic debuts, and the last three of which will remain on the Olympic program.

Q60. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.

2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Q61. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.

2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.

3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 2

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: 

Right to the city has gained international recognition in the last years could be seen in the United Nations’ Habitat III process, and how the New Urban Agenda (2016) recognized the concept as the vision of “cities for all”

The right to the city is far more than the individual liberty to access urban resources: it is a right to change ourselves by changing the city. It is, moreover, a common rather than an individual right since this transformation inevitably depends upon the exercise of a collective power to reshape the processes of urbanization.

Q62. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.

2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Police Custody means that police has the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In the former, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in the latter, it is the jail.

During Judicial Custody,  the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation being necessary under the facts produced before the court.

Source: https://districts.ecourts.gov.in/sites/default/files/fct.pdf

Q63: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole because it becomes a matter of his/her right.

2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Furlough is seen as a matter of right, to be granted periodically irrespective of any reason and merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, parole is not a matter of right and may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out a sufficient case.

Prisons are a State subject: each state has different rules and regulations for it.

Q64. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

B. Ministry of Panchayat raj

C. Ministry of Rural Development

D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer – D:

Q65. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

A. Article 14

B. Article 28

C. Article 32

D. Article 44

Answer: A

Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. … “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.” 

Q66: Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

A. The independence of the judiciary is safeguard.

B. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

C. The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.

D. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: A

Q67:  Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

A. A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

B. A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.

C. A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.

D. A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, and executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

Answer: A

As used in political science, the word state means a community or society politically organized under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control.

Source: https://www.iilsindia.com/study-material/528569_1600581365.pdf

Q68: With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.

2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation: Being a Court of record, the High Court is vested with powers to proceed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India itself and review a judgment,

Q69: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.

2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.

3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: Citizen by Naturalization can also become Head of the state in India but not in USA

Deprivation is a compulsory termination of citizenship of India. A citizen of India by naturalization, registration, domicile and residence, may be deprived of his citizenship by an order of the Central Government if it is satisfied that:

The citizen has obtained citizenship by means of fraud, false representation or concealment of any material fact;

The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India;

The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;

The citizen has, within five years after registration or neutralization, been imprisoned in any country for two years;

The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Q70: Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

A. A committed judiciary

B. Centralization of powers

C. Elected government

D. Separation of powers

Ans: D

Explanation: Centralization of powers gives rise to monarchy. Therefore decentralization of power is required for the safeguard of liberty. Powers should be divided into central, provincial and local self-governments. This decentralization of powers leads to efficient administration. And people also start cooperating with the functioning of the government.

Q71:  The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions.

Which of the following are such conditions?

1. Burrowing animals and termites

2. Fire

3. Grazing herbivores

4. Seasonal rainfall

5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 4 and 5

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 5

Answer: Debatable

Q72: With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.

2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Distribution of water on Planet Earth:

Streams and Rivers > Atmosphere > Soil Moisture > Lakes > Groundwater > Ice Caps and Glaciers > Oceans

Q73: Consider the following statements:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.

2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.

3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.

4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.

5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5

B. 3, 4 and 5

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 5

Ans: B

Statement 1 is incorrect: Moringa (botanical name Moringa oleifera) is a fast-growing, drought-resistant tree of the family Moringaceae, native to the Indian subcontinent. 

Statement 3 is correct: The Forest Rights Act confers ownership rights on minor forest produce like tamarind on tribal populations and residents of the particular forests. Today, about 90 per cent of the tamarind produced in the country comes from the forests.

Statement 4: India is the largest producer of moringa. So we can assume the option is correct.

Statement 5 is correct

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/coverage/agriculture/sweet-n-sour-55668

Q74. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

A. brown forest soil

B. fissure volcanic rock

C. granite and schist

D. shale and limestone

Answer: B

The Black soil are so called because of their black colouration and derived from the Basalt rock under semi-arid conditions. It is also known as ‘Regur’ (from the Telugu word Reguda) or black cotton soil as it is best suited for cotton cultivation. In India black soil are largely found over Deccan trap region of the states of Maharshtra, Madhya Pradesh, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Northern part of Karnataka, Gujarat, parts of Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Several theories have been put forward regarding the origin of this group of soils but most pedologists believe that these soils have been formed due to the solidification of lava spread over large areas during volcanic activity in the Deccan Plateau, in the Triassic Period. 

Q75. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of three vaccines.

2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The use of recombinant proteins allows the targeting of immune responses focused against few protective antigens. There are a variety of expression systems with different advantages, allowing the production of large quantities of proteins depending on the required characteristics. Live recombinant bacteria or viral vectors effectively stimulate the immune system as in natural infections and have intrinsic adjuvant properties. DNA vaccines, which consist of non-replicating plasmids, can induce strong long-term cellular immune responses.

Q76. In the context of hereditary disease, consider the following statements:

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg.

2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Mitochondrial replacement therapy(MRT), sometimes called mitochondrial donation, is the replacement of mitochondria in one or more cells to prevent or ameliorate disease. 

MRT originated as a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which some or all of the future baby’s mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) comes from a third party. This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases. 

In Pronuclear transfer technique MRT is done after In vitro fertilisation (IVF).  Hence Statement 1 is true. 

A child inherits mitochondrial diseases only from Mother. Hence,  Statement 2 is true. 

Q77. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of

A. Clonal propagation of crop plants

B. Developing genetically modified crop plants

C. Production of plant growth substances

D. Production of biofertilizers

Answer:  B.

Bollgard-1 and 2 are GM crops. 

Bollgard Bt cotton (single-gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop technology approved for commercialization in India in 2002, followed by Bollgard II- a double-gene technology in mid-2006, by the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) in India. 

Q78. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?

1. Area of the hole in the lid

2. Temperature of the flame

3. Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3 

Answer:  C.

In pressure cooker Technology, the temperature at which food is cooked is determined by the pressure inside it as volume is constant and pressure is regulated by the area of hole in the lid and weight of the lid.  The temperature of the flame doesn’t affect the temperature at which rice will be cooked. Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are true, while statement-2 is not true.  

Q79. Consider the following:

1. Bacteria

2. Fungi

3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/synthetic medium?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A.   

Viruses replicate only within living cells be it bacteria, fungus or other living organisms. However, bacteria and fungus can be cultured in artificial mediums in laboratory conditions. 

Q80. . Consider the following statements :

1. Adenoviruses have single- stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.

2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  B

The genome of adenovirus is double-stranded DNA, while the genome of a retrovirus is single-stranded RNA. Both types of viruses have been news over Corona Virus and development of Vaccines.  Hence, Statement-1 is not true. 

Common cold is caused by an adenovirus and other types of viruses, while AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) – a subgroup of retrovirus. Hence, Statement-2 is true. 

Q81.  How is Permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?

Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant. 

Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soul salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming

Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions, but permaculture is not so easy in such regions. 

Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming, but not necessarily so in Conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 and 3 

B. 1,2 and 4

C. 4 only

D. 2 and 3 

Answer:   B

Since the principles of permaculture discourage monoculture, it opens up the opportunity for growing a wide variety of grains, fruits and vegetables, and widens one’s food basket.  It can be possible in all kinds of climate including semi- arid regions.  Hence, Statement-3 is not correct.

Permaculture cultivation discourages monoculture practices, Improves soil fertility and Encourages mulching.  Hence, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true. 

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/coverage/environment/new-civilisation-primitive-wisdom-59125

Q82.  With reference to ‘palm oil, consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to SouthEast Asia.

2. Palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.

3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer:   B

Palm oil is native to Africa and brought to southeast Asia during colonial times, palm oil plantations now cover huge areas of Malaysia and Indonesia.  

Palm oil is used in lipstick as it holds color well, doesn’t melt at high temperatures, and has a smooth application and virtually no taste.

Palm can be used for making biodiesel also. 

Hence, Statement-1 is not true while Statement-2 and 3 are true.

Q83. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, Which one is such a river that joins the Indus directly?

A. Chenab

B. Jhelum

C. Ravi

D. Sutlej  

Answer:  D

About 17 kilometres north of Uch Sharif in Pakistan, the Sutlej unites with the Chenab river which already united with Jhelum and Ravi river, forming the Panjnad River. It finally flows into the Indus river about 100 kilometres west of the city of Bahawalpur in Pakistan. 

Q84.  With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of

A. glaciers

B. mangrove areas

C. Ramsar sites

D. saline lakes

Answer: D

All of them are saline lakes. 

Q85.  Consider the following rivers: 

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali 
3. Subarnarekha 
4. Vamshandhra

Which of the above rise from Eastern Ghats? 

A. 1 and 2 

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 and 4 

D. 1 and 3

Answer:   B

Statement-1 and 3 are incorrect, while 2 and 4 are correct. 

Brahmani and Subarnarekha originate from central Indian Plateau regions. Vamsadhara River is an east-flowing river which originates in Kalahandi district of Odisha ie. Eastern Ghats.  The River Nagavali also known as Langulya is one of the main rivers of Southern Odisha and Northern Andhra Pradesh States in India, between Rushikulya and Godavari basins. 

Q86.  Consider the following statements: 

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 ony

Answer: B

International Seabed Authority (ISA) set up under UNCLOS focuses mainly on organising, regulating and controlling all the mineral-related activities in the international seabed area that are beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. Hence, Statement-1 is not correct. 

India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor ‘ in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration. In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50% was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km. Ocean floors are rich sources of Rare Earth Minerals along with heavy metals.  

Hence, Statement-2 and 3 are correct. 

Q87. Among the following, which one of the least water- efficient crops? 

A. Sugarcane

B. Sunflower

C. Pearl millet

D. Red gram  

Answer: A .

Sugarcane is the least water efficient crop as evident from Droughts in Marathwada a few years ago. 

Q88. Consider the following Statements: 

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of the trade winds. 
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 only

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  C. 

Normally, sea surface temperature is Western parts of the ocean rather than the eastern part. This is due to the trade winds blowing from east to west  carry warm surface water from east to west and allow upwelling of cold water in eastern coastal areas. Hence, Statement-1 is true. 

In the temperate zone,  Westerlies flowing from west to east bring warm water in eastern temperate regions; hence, temperature is slightly higher than eastern part. Hence, Statement-2 is true. 

Q89.  In the context of India’s preparation for Climate- Smart Agriculture, Consider the following statements: 

1.  The ‘ Climate- Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme. 

2. The project CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research(CGIAR) headquartered in France. 

3. The international Crops Research Institute for the Semi- Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3 

Answer: D

CCAFS project’s major activities in India include test, evaluate and develop portfolios of climate-smart interventions for different agro-ecological zones and farm types; promotion of Climate Smart Agriculture (CSAT) through the Climate-Smart Village (CSV) approach; weather-based insurance; use of ICT for dissemination of climate information based agro-advisories. 

CCAFS is carried out under CGIAR headquartered In France and ICRISAT located in Patancheru, Telangana is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Hence, All the statements are true. 

Q90.  “ Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees”. This is the most likely description of 

A. Coniferous forest

B. Dry deciduous forests

C. Mangore forest

D. Tropical  rainforest

Answer:  D

All the characteristics mentioned in the question are of tropical rainforest. 

The hot and humid conditions lead to faster decay and absorption of nutrients.  Trees are only 70% of plants, the rest are creepers and climbers that reach up into the canopy and compete for water and sunlight. 

Q91. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because:

A. It is Polar in nature

B. It is a good conductor of heat

C. It has a high value of specific heat

D. It is an oxide of hydrogen

Answer – A (polarity of water)

Source:- https://www.usgs.gov/special-topic/water-science-school/science/water-qa-why-water-universal-solvent?qt-science_center_objects=0#qt-science_center_objects

Q92. With Reference to street lighting, how are sodium lamps different from LED Lamps?

1. Sodium lamp produces light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps
2. As Street lights, sodium lamps have a longer lifespan than street lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lightning

Select the correct answer from the code given below

A. 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer:  C

What’s the Major Upside to LED Lights?

There are four major advantages to LED lighting:

LEDs have an extremely long lifespan relative to every other lighting technology. 

New LEDs can last 50,000 to 100,000 hours or more. The typical lifespan for a fluorescent bulb, by comparison, is 10-25% as long at best (roughly 10,000 hours).

LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting technology. There are several reasons for this to include the fact they waste very little energy in the form of infrared radiation (much different than most conventional lights to include fluorescent lights), and they emit light directionally (over 180 degrees versus 360 degrees which means there are far fewer losses from the need to redirect or reflect light).

Very high light quality.

Very low maintenance costs and hassle

Sodium vapour lights have the worst colour rendering on the market. LPS lamps in particular are monochromatic which means that the objects illuminated by them appear shadowy black rather than the colour you would see during daylight. HPS lamps are better but are still surpassed by virtually every other light on the market.  

https://www.stouchlighting.com/blog/led-vs-hps-lps-high-and-low-pressure-sodium

https://www.energy.gov/energysaver/led-lighting

Q93. The term ACE-2 is talked about in the context of?

A. Genes introduced in the genetically modified crops

B. Development of India’s own navigation satellite system

C. Radio collar for wildlife trafficking

D. Spread of viral diseases

Answer – D

Solution:- 

The SARS-CoV-2 virus enters a human cell through ‘ACE2 receptors’, which are enzymes that generate small proteins that are useful for the cell. The coronaviruses have horn-like projections, called spike proteins. The spike proteins bind to ACE2, like a key inserted into a lock, and the virus gains entry into the cell and infects it. 

Source The Hindu https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/ace2-receptors-how-the-sars-cov-2-virus-transmits-so-fast/article33956645.ece/amp/

Q94. Bisphenol A(BPA), a cause of concern is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastic?

A. Low-density Polyethylene

B. Polycarbonate

C. Polyethylene terephthalate

D. polyvinyl chloride

Answer- B

Solution:-  In the news because BPA mimics estrogen and was found in feeding bottles of infants. It is considered carcinogenic and linked with lower IQ in newborns

Source:- although it is an old news, yet every time you look at any water bottle it says BPA free.

https://www.google.com/amp/s/indianexpress.com/article/india/study-shows-use-of-banned-synthetic-in-feeding-bottles-5741631/lite/

Q95. Triclosan is considered harmful when exposed to. high levels for a very long time, is most likely present in which of the following?

A. food preservatives

B. Food ripening substance

C. Reused plastic containers 

D. Toiletries

Solution:- D 

In news due to Covid hand washing protocols. A study by IIT HYDERABAD found its harmful uses. Common sense discussion – the killing of good bacteria due to frequent hand washing

Source:- 

https://m.timesofindia.com/city/hyderabad/triclosan-in-soap-toothpaste-harmful-to-health-iit-h/amp_articleshow/79747418.cms

Q96. Which one of the following is the reason why astronomical distances are measured in light years?

A. Distance among stellar bodies do not change

B. Gravity of stellar bodies do not change

C. Light always travels in a straight line

D. Speed of light is always the same

Answer: D

Solution:- The only thing absolute in this universe according to Einstein is the speed of light, rest everything is relative. So to get an idea of interstellar distance, Light Year is the best method, as it is really large and appropriate for such lengths and is even concise, as no one would remember all the digits or exponents when the distance is expressed in Kilometres.

Q97. We adopted our parliamentary democracy based on the British model,  but how does our model differ from the British model?

1. As Regards legislation the British parliament is Supreme or sovereign, but in India the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India matters related to the constitutionality of an amendment of an act of the parliament are referred to the constitutional bench by the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only 

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Solution :- Laxmikant chapter Parliamentary System last page – Distinction between indian and British Models

Q98. With reference to the union government consider the following statement

1. N Gopalaswamy Ayengar Committee suggested that a minister and a Secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970 the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission 1966 and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Source :- https://darpg.gov.in/about-department-0

Q99. Right to Privacy is protected under which article of the constitution of India?

A. Art 15

B. Art 19

C. Art 21

D. Art 29

Answer:- C

Direct and repeated question. Justice K S Puttaswamy judgement of supreme court asked before in main exam as well

Source:- https://www.civilsdaily.com/news/surveillance-and-human-right/

Q100. Consider the following statement

1. In India there is no law restricting the candidate from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from 3 constituencies
2. In 1991 lok sabha  elections Sri Devi Lal contested from 3 lok sabha constituencies
3. As per the existing rules if a  candidate contests  in one Lok Sabha elections from many constituencies, his/her party  should bear the cost of bye elections vacated by him or her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer- A 

Solution :- Laxmikant Electoral Reform page 71.3 contestants restricted to two constituencies

The competition in the UPSC examination is fierce. One day and even writing one answer a day can make a huge difference. UPSC Prelims is on 10th October 2021. Many of you might want to take a break. And honestly, you deserve it!

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For Course enrollment details, click the link given below.

The competition in the UPSC examination is fierce. One day and even writing one answer a day can make a huge difference. UPSC Prelims is on 10th October 2021. Many of you might want to take a break. And honestly, you deserve it!

But writing just 4 answers a day can be a perfect balance to take a break and not lose momentum.

Let’s keep the momentum going. 

Answer writing practices through Civilsdaily’s Daily AWE program can reduce test anxiety and helps you ace the GS Mains answer writing. And what is a better way to practice for UPSC Mains Examinations than attempting Questions which are the closest to the demands of the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination? The more you are accustomed to sitting for a period of time, answering questions, and pacing yourself, the more comfortable you will feel when you actually sit down to take the real UPSC Mains examinations yourself.

We are working hard to make the program more featureful, highlight the best answers, show the competency levels of students.

WHAT THE PROGRAM INCLUDES:

• Daily 4 questions from General studies 1, 2, 3, and 4 will be provided to you. A sample 2 week schedule is available below.
• A Mentor’s Comment will be available for all answers. This can be used as a guidance tool, but we encourage you to write original answers.
• You can write your answer on the same day and attached a scanned copy. Within 4 days, a review of your answer will be provided.
• Also, write the Razor payment ID, when you attached your answer.
• If you are writing answers late, then please tag the mentor, to let him know about your submission. These answers will be evaluated as per the mentor’s schedule.

SCHEDULE:

Here is the schedule for the first week of October to give you an idea about how we will follow your Syllabus:

NOTE: For GS2 and GS3, we take questions from recent current affairs. This ensures coverage of both static and current affairs.

For Course enrollment details, click the link given below.

The competition in the UPSC examination is fierce. One day and even writing one answer a day can make a huge difference. UPSC Prelims is on 10th October 2021. Many of you might want to take a break. And honestly, you deserve it!

But writing just 4 answers a day can be a perfect balance to take a break and not lose momentum.

Let’s keep the momentum going. 

Answer writing practices through Civilsdaily’s Daily AWE program can reduce test anxiety and helps you ace the GS Mains answer writing. And what is a better way to practice for UPSC Mains Examinations than attempting Questions which are the closest to the demands of the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination? The more you are accustomed to sitting for a period of time, answering questions, and pacing yourself, the more comfortable you will feel when you actually sit down to take the real UPSC Mains examinations yourself.

We are working hard to make the program more featureful, highlight the best answers, show the competency levels of students.

WHAT THE PROGRAM INCLUDES:

• Daily 4 questions from General studies 1, 2, 3, and 4 will be provided to you. A sample 2 week schedule is available below.
• A Mentor’s Comment will be available for all answers. This can be used as a guidance tool, but we encourage you to write original answers.
• You can write your answer on the same day and attached a scanned copy. Within 4 days, a review of your answer will be provided.
• Also, write the Razor payment ID, when you attached your answer.
• If you are writing answers late, then please tag the mentor, to let him know about your submission. These answers will be evaluated as per the mentor’s schedule.

SCHEDULE:

Here is the schedule for the first week of October to give you an idea about how we will follow your Syllabus:

NOTE: For GS2 and GS3, we take questions from recent current affairs. This ensures coverage of both static and current affairs.

For Course enrollment details, click the link given below.

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Geographical Indications in India

• A Geographical Indication is used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
• Such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to its origin in that defined geographical locality.
• This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed.
• Recently the Union Minister of Commerce and Industry has launched the logo and tagline for the Geographical Indications (GI) of India.
• The first product to get a GI tag in India was the Darjeeling tea in 2004.
• The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (GI Act) is a sui generis Act for the protection of GI in India.
• India, as a member of the WTO, enacted the Act to comply with the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.
• Geographical Indications protection is granted through the TRIPS Agreement.

Two well-known products from Tamil Nadu — Dindigul lock and Kandangi Saree — have been given the Geographical Indication (GI) tag by The Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai.

Dindigul lock

• The Dindigul locks are known throughout the world for their superior quality and durability, so much so that even the city is called Lock City.
• Government institutions such as prisons, godowns, hospitals, and even temples use these locks instead of other machine-made ones.
• The application for the lock was made by the Dindigul Lock, Hardware and Steel Furniture Workers Industrial Co-operative Society Limited.
• More than 3,125 lock manufacturing units are limited to an area of 5 km in and around Dindigul.
• The abundance of iron in this region is the reason for the growth of the industry.
• There are over 50 varieties of locks made by the artisans using raw materials such as MS flat plates and brass plates procured from the nearby towns, including Madurai and Salem.

The Kandangi sarees

• The Kandangi sarees are manufactured in the entire Karaikudi taluk in Sivaganga district.
• They are characterised by large contrast borders and some are known to have borders covering as far as two-thirds of the saree which is usually around 5.10 m-5.60 m in length.
• Worn in summer, these cotton sarees are usually bought by customers in bulk.
• The Amarar Rajeev Gandhi Handloom Weavers Co-operative Production and Sales Society Limited filed the application for the Kandangi saree.

Palani Panchamirtham

• PalaniPanchamirtham, an abishegaPrasadam, from Palani Town is one of the main offerings in the Abisegam of Lord Dhandayuthapani Swamy, the presiding deity of the Temple.
• It is a combination of five natural substances, namely, banana, jaggery sugar, cow ghee, honey and cardamom in a definite proportion.
• It is prepared in a natural method without addition of any preservatives or artificial ingredients and is well known for its religious fervour and gaiety.
• This is the first time a temple ‘prasadam’ from Tamil Nadu has been bestowed with the GI tag.

Tawlhlohpuan

• Tawlhlohpuan, a medium to heavy, compactly woven, good quality fabric from Mizoram is known for warp yarns, warping, weaving & intricate designs that are made by hand.
• Tawlhloh, in Mizo language, means ‘to stand firm or not to move backward’. Tawlhlohpuan, which holds high significance in the Mizo society, is produced throughout the state of Mizoram, Aizawl and Thenzawl town being the main centre of production.

Mizo Puanchei

• Mizo Puanchei, a colourful Mizo shawl/textile, from Mizoram, is considered as the most colourful among the Mizo textiles.
• It is an essential possession for every Mizo lady and an important marriage outfit in the state.
• It is also the most commonly used costume in Mizo festive dances and official ceremonies.
• The weavers insert the designs and motifs by using supplementary yarns while weaving to create this beautiful and alluring textile.

Tirur betel vine

• Tirur betel vine from Kerala is mainly cultivated in Tirur, Tanur, Tirurangadi, Kuttippuram, Malappuram and Vengara block panchayaths of Malappuram District.
• It is valued both for its mild stimulant action and medicinal properties.
• Even though it is commonly used for making pan masala for chewing, it has many medicinal, industrial and cultural usages and is considered as a remedy for bad breath and digestive disorders.

Panchamirtham’ of Palani temple gets GI tag

• The famous Palani panchamirtham, given as ‘prasadam’ at the Murugan temple at Palani has been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
• This is the first time a temple ‘prasadam’ from Tamil Nadu has been given the GI tag.

About the Panchamirtham

• It is sweet in taste and one of the main offerings for Lord Dhandayuthapani Swamy, the presiding deity of Arulmigu Dhandayuthapani Swamy Temple, situated on Palani Hills.
• The panchamirtham is a combination of five natural substances — banana, jaggery, cow ghee, honey and cardamom.
• Dates and diamond sugar candies are added for flavour.
• The panchamirtham is an ‘abhishega prasadam’ (food that is a religious offering), which is served in a semi-solid state.
• Not even a single drop of water is added during the preparation of the panchamirtham.
• This gives it its classic semi-solid consistency and taste. No preservatives or artificial ingredients are used.

Pashmina

• Pashmina is a fine type of cashmere wool. The textiles made from it were first woven in Kashmir.
• The wool comes from a number of different breeds of the cashmere goat; such as the changthangi or Kashmir pashmina goat from the Changthang Plateau in Tibet and part of the Ladakh region and few parts of Himachal Pradesh.
• Often shawls called shahmina are made from this material in Kashmir and Nepal; these shawls are hand spun and woven from the very fine cashmere fibre.
• Traditional producers of pashmina wool are people known as the Changpa.

About Kodaikanal’s malai poondu Garlic

• Also known by its scientific name Allium Sativum, this particular garlic is known for its medicinal and preservative properties. It is grown in the Kodaikanal Hills, Dindugul district.
• It has anti-oxidant and anti-microbial potential, which is attributed to the presence of higher amount of organosulfur compounds, phenols and flavonoids compared to other garlic varieties.
• Its usually white or pale yellow and each bulb weighs 20-30g on an average.
• According to the GI application, Kodaikanal Hill Garlic cultivation is done twice in a year, once around May and for second time in November depending upon the suitability of the climate.
• The hill altitude, the misty condition and the soil prevailing in the Kodaikanal region are responsible for its medicinal property and the long storage shelf life of the garlic.

Kolhapuri Chappal

• According to the GI application made by the two states, Kolhapuris can be traced back to the 12th century King Bijjal who ruled Bidar in Karnataka.
• His prime minister Vishwaguru Basavanna wanted to create a casteless society and remove the stigma associated with the cobbler community.
• The community embraced Lingayat faith and used its creative skills to start producing footwear known equally for its ruggedness and regal bearing.
• Brand Kolhapuri came into being only in the beginning of 20th century when the footwear began to be traded in Kolhapur.
• Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj (1874-1922) of Kolhapur encouraged its production and 29 tanning centres were opened during his rule in Kolhapur.

Kandhamal Haldi

• Kandhamal in Odisha’s southern hinterland is famed for its turmeric, a spice that enjoys its pride of place in an array of cuisines.
• The agricultural product also stands out for its healing properties and arresting aroma.
• The GI tag was primarily developed with the purpose of recognising the unique identity connecting different products and places.
• For a product to get GI tag it has to have a unique quality, reputation or characteristic which is attributable to its geographic origin. ‘Kandhamal Haldi’ has been placed under Class-30 type.

GI Tag for 5 Indian Coffee varieties

Coorg Arabica coffee 

• It is grown specifically in the region of Kodagu district in Karnataka.

Wayanaad Robusta coffee 

• It is grown specifically in the region of Wayanad district which is situated on the eastern portion of Kerala.

Chikmagalur Arabica coffee 

• It is grown specifically in the region of Chikmagalur district and it is situated in the Deccan plateau, belongs to the Malnad region of Karnataka.

Araku Valley Arabica coffee 

• It is coffee from the hilly tracks of Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha region at an elevation of 900-1100 Mt MSL.
• The coffee produce of Araku, by the tribals, follows an organic approach in which they emphasise management practices involving substantial use of organic manures, green manuring and organic pest management practices.

Bababudangiris Arabica coffee 

• It is grown specifically in the birthplace of coffee in India and the region is situated in the central portion of Chikmagalur district.
• Selectively hand-picked and processed by natural fermentation, the cup exhibits full body, acidity, mild flavour and striking aroma with a note of chocolate.
• This coffee is also called high grown coffee which slowly ripens in the mild climate and thereby the bean acquires a special taste and aroma.

Sirsi Arecanut

• It is cultivated in Yellapura, Siddapura and Sirsi taluks.
• Totgars’ Cooperative Sale Society Ltd., Sirsi, is the registered proprietor of the GI.
• The arecanut grown in these taluks have unique features like a round and flattened coin shape, particular texture, size, cross-sectional views, taste, etc.
• These features are not seen in arecanut grown in any other regions.

Shahi Litchi

• The lychee crop, which is available from May to June, is mainly cultivated in the districts of Muzaffarpur and surrounding districts.
• Cultivation of litchi covers approximately an area of about 25,800 hectares producing about 300,000 tonnes every year.
• India’s share in the world litchi market amounts to less than 1%.
• The names of the litchi produced in Muzaffarpur are Shahi and China.
• The fruits are known for excellent aroma and quality.

King of Mangoes gets GI tag

• Alphonso from Ratnagiri, Sindhudurg, Palghar, Thane and Raigad districts of  Maharashtra, is registered as Geographical Indication (GI).
• The king of mangoes, Alphonso, better known as ‘Hapus’ in Maharashtra, is in demand in domestic and international markets not only for its taste but also for pleasant fragrance and vibrant colour.
• It has long been one of the world’s most popular fruit and is exported to various countries including Japan, Korea and Europe.
• New markets such as USA and Australia have recently opened up.

GI Tag for Telangana

• The Chennai-based GI Registry gave Geographical Indication certificate for Warangal dhurries
• The shatranji carpets and jainamaaz prayer mats are made in Warangal

Specialty of carpets

• Bright colors, geometrically repetitive patterns and interlocking zigzag motifs in cotton and jute are the signature styles of the carpets
• One of the newest innovations by the weavers here is an adaptation of tie-dyed ikat techniques and hand-painted or block-printed kalamkari designs for the dhurries to save time and energy.

Kalamkari Paintings

• Kalamkari or qalamkari is a type of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile, produced in Iran and
  India
• Its name originates in the Persian, which is derived from the words qalam (pen) and kari (craftsmanship),
  meaning drawing with a pen
• There are two distinctive styles of kalamkari art in India – the Srikalahasti style and the Machilipatnam
  style
• The Srikalahasti style of kalamkari, wherein the "kalam" or pen is used for freehand drawing of the
  subject and filling in the colors is entirely hand worked
• The Pedana Kalamkari craft made at Pedana nearby Machilipatnam in Krishna district, Andhra Pradesh,
  evolved with the patronage of the Mughals and the Golconda sultanate

MP gets GI tag for a chicken breed

• Madhya Pradesh has received the Geographical Indications (GI) tag for Kadaknath, a chicken breed whose black meat is in demand in some quarters
• The protein-rich meat of Kadaknath, chicks, and eggs are sold at a much higher rate than other varieties of chicken.

---

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Credit Guarantee Trust Fund for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)

What is CGTMSE?

• CGTMSE is a fund which provides a guarantee for loans given to MSEs i.e. in case borrowers fails to give back loans, the bank will get their money from this fund.
• It is a Central Government program to promote MSMEs.
• Government has increased corpus of fund from Rs 2500 crore to Rs 7500 crore
• Now loans given by NBFCs can also be covered under this fund

Udyami Mitra’ portal

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has revamped its Udyami Mitra with enhanced features.
• The portal was launched to improve the accessibility of credit for the MSMEs.
• It helps MSMEs for submission of loan applications which can be picked up by multiple lenders.
• It aims at bringing in transparency in the processing of loans by the banks.
• Now non-banking finance companies and small finance banks are being on-boarded on the platform for enhancing the flow of credit to MSMEs.
• Under the new capitalisation plan, banks will have to compete for loans through the revamped udyamimitra portal.

A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industry and Entrepreneurship (ASPIRE)

• ASPIRE has been launched on 16.03.2015 with an objective to set up a network of technology centres, incubation centres to accelerate entrepreneurship and also to promote start-ups for innovation and entrepreneurship in the rural and agriculture-based industry with a fund of Rs.210 crores.
• The planned outcomes of ASPIRE are setting up Technology Business Incubators (TBI), Livelihood Business Incubators (LBI) and creation of a Fund of Funds for such initiatives with SIDBI.

Prime Ministers Employment Generation Programme, PMEGP

• Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a nodal implementation agency at the national level.
  At State and district level, State offices of KVIC, Khadi and Village Industries Boards (KVIBs) and District Industry Centres (DIC) are the implementing agencies.

Objectives

• To generate continuous and sustainable employment opportunities in Rural and Urban areas of the country
• To provide continuous and sustainable employment to a large segment of traditional and prospective artisans, rural and urban unemployed youth in the country through setting up of micro-enterprises.
• To facilitate the participation of financial institutions for higher credit flow to the micro sector.

Eligibility

• Individuals above 18 years of age
• VIII Std. pass required for the project above Rs.10.00 lakhs in manufacturing and above Rs. 5.00 lakhs for Service Sector
• Self Help Groups and Charitable Trusts
• Institutions registered under Societies Registration Act- 1860
• Production-based Co-operative Societies

Salient features of the scheme

• The Scheme is implemented through KVIC and State/UT Khadi & V.I. Boards in Rural areas and through District Industries Centres in Urban and Rural areas in ratio of 30:30:40 between KVIC / KVIB / DIC respectively.
• No income ceiling for setting up projects.
• Assistance under the Scheme is available only to new units to be established.
• Existing units or units already availed any Govt. Subsidy either under State/Central Govt. Schemes are not eligible.
• Any industry including Coir Based projects excluding those mentioned in the negative list.
• Per capita investment should not exceed Rs. 1.00 lakhs in plain areas and Rs. 1.50 lakhs in Hilly areas.
• The maximum project cost of Rs. 25.00 lakhs in the manufacturing sector and Rs. 10.00 lakhs in Service Sector.

Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS)

-CLCSS aims at facilitating technology up-gradation of Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) by providing 15% capital subsidy (limited to maximum Rs.15 lakhs) for purchase of Plant & Machinery.   -Maximum limit of eligible loan for calculation of subsidy under the scheme is Rs.100 lakhs. Presently, more than 1500 well established/improved technologies under 51 sub-sectors have been approved under the Scheme.

UDYAM SAKHI

It is a network for nurturing social entrepreneurship creating business models revolving around low-cost products and services to resolve social inequities.

Mission

• Udyam Sakhi seeks to encourage women entrepreneurs and to aid, counsel, assist and protect their interests. It also preserves free competitive enterprise and to maintain and strengthen the overall economy of our nation.
• The Udyam Sakhi helps Indian women to start, build and grow businesses. It recognises that women entrepreneur in the industry is critical to economic recovery and strength, in building the nation’s future, and to helping India compete in today’s global marketplace.

Samadhan Portal

The portal aims at empowering micro and small entrepreneurs across country to directly register their cases relating to delayed payments by Central Ministries, Departments, CPSEs, State Governments.

The Samadhaan portal will give information about pending payment of MSEs with individual CPSEs/Central Ministries, State Governments, etc.   The CEO of PSEs and Secretary of Ministries concerned will also be able to monitor cases of delayed payment under their jurisdiction and issue necessary instructions to resolve the issues. The portal will facilitate monitoring of delayed payment in more effective manner. The information on portal will be available in public domain, thus exerting moral pressure on defaulting organisations. The MSEs will also be empowered to access portal and monitor their cases.

Zero Defect, Zero Effect

• ZED Scheme aims to rate and handhold all MSMEs to deliver top quality products using clean technology.
• It will have sector-specific parameters for each industry.
• ZED Scheme is meant to raise quality levels in unregulated MSME sector which is an engine of growth for the Indian economy.
• The scheme will be the cornerstone of the Central Government’s flagship Make in India programme, which is aimed at turning India into a global manufacturing hub, generating jobs, boosting growth and increase incomes.

National Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes (SC/ST) Hub

• Ministry of  Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) is implementing a scheme of  National Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes (SC/ST) Hub.
• The Hub is set up to provide professional support to SC/ST entrepreneurs to fulfil the obligations under the Central Government Public Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises Order 2012, adopt applicable business practices and leverage the Stand-Up India initiatives.
• The functions of Hub include collection, collation and dissemination of information regarding SC/ST enterprises and entrepreneurs, capacity building among existing and prospective SC/ST entrepreneurs through skill training and EDPs, vendor development etc.
• Four special subsidy schemes/programmes have been approved under National SC/ST Hub namely
  • Single Point Registration Scheme
  • Special Marketing Assistance Scheme (SMAS)
  • Performance & Credit Rating Scheme and
  • Special Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme.

SFURTI

• As per the revised guidelines, the following schemes are being merged into SFURTI:

1. The Scheme for Enhancing Productivity and Competitiveness of Khadi Industry and Artisans
2. The Scheme for Product Development, Design Intervention and Packaging (PRODIP)
3. The Scheme for Rural Industries Service Center (RISC) and
4. Other small interventions like Ready Warp Units, Ready to Wear Mission, etc.

Objectives of Scheme

• To organize the traditional industries and artisans into clusters to make them competitive and provide support for their long term sustainability and economy of scale;
• To provide sustained employment for traditional industry artisans and rural entrepreneurs;
• To enhance the marketability of products of such clusters by providing support for new products, design intervention and improved packaging and also the improvement of marketing infrastructure;
• To equip traditional artisans of the associated clusters with the improved skills and capabilities through training and exposure visits;
• To make provision for common facilities and improved tools and equipment for artisans to promote optimum utilization of infrastructure facilities;
• To strengthen the cluster governance systems with the active participation of the stakeholders, so that they are able to gauge the emerging challenges and opportunities and respond to them in a coherent manner;
• To build up innovated and traditional skills, improved technologies, advanced processes, market intelligence and new models of public-private partnership s, so as to gradually replicate similar models of cluster-based regenerated traditional industries
• To look for setting up of multi-product cluster with an integrated value chain and a strong market-driven approach for viability and long term sustainability of the cluster;
• To ensure convergence from the design stage with each activity of the cluster formation and operations thereof.
• To develop specific product lines out of the currently offered diversified basket of heterogeneous products based on the understanding of the target consumer segment. A brand unification exercise also needs to be done to maximize the value.

Trade-Related Entrepreneurship Development Assistance Scheme (TREAD) Women entrepreneurship programme

• There is a provision of Govt of India Grant up to 30% of Loan/credit sanctioned subject to a maximum ceiling of 30 Lakhs to NGOs as appraised by Lending Institutes/Banks for undertaking capacity building activities such as Training, counselling, participation in exhibitions, the establishment of new SHGs etc and other components as approved by Bank/Steering Committee.
• The non-farming activities taken up by women are Tailoring, Handicrafts, Embroidery, Toy making, Readymade garments, Candle making, Agarbatti making, paper cup and plate making, Masala powder making, Saree weaving, Coir mat making, Pickles making, Readymade garments, basketry and brooms making, Jute bag making etc.
• The focus of the scheme is to promote self-employment and income generation activities for women mostly from SHG groups in the non-farm sector.

---

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1. SATHI

The Department of Science & Technology has launched a unique scheme called “Sophisticated Analytical & Technical Help Institutes(SATHI)”.

Objectives of the Scheme

• SATHI will address the problems of accessibility, maintenance, redundancy and duplication of expensive equipment in the institutions.
• This will also foster a strong culture of collaboration between institutions and across disciplines to take advantage of developments, innovations and expertise in diverse areas.

2. National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA)

The Finance Minister in budget 2020 has announced a National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA).

About NM-QTA

• The mission will function under the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
• It will be able to address the ever-increasing technological requirements of society and take into account the international technology trends.
• The mission will help prepare next-generation skilled manpower, boost translational research and also encourage entrepreneurship and start-up ecosystem development.

3. Project MANAV: Human Atlas Initiative

• For the first time, Indian scientists will be mapping every single tissue of the human body to have a deeper understanding of the roles of tissues and cells linked to various diseases.
• Department of Biotechnology (DBT) launched MANAV: Human Atlas Initiative towards improving knowledge on human physiology.
• It is a project funded by DBT, which aims at creating a database network of all tissues in the human body from the available scientific literature.
• It is a project that involves scientific skill development for annotation, science outreach along with handling big data.
• It will involve gaining better biological insights through physiological and molecular mapping, develop disease models through predictive computing and have a holistic analysis and finally drug discovery.
• The student community, who will be the backbone on assimilating the information, will be trained and imparted with skills to perform annotation and curation of information that will ultimately form the online network.
• DBT has invested funds shared between two institutions in Pune – National Centre for Cell Science (NCCS) and Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER), Pune.
• Besides, Persistent Systems Limited has co-funded the project and is developing the platform.

4. Project Cosmic Microwave Background-Bharat

• CMB stands for Cosmic Microwave Background, and the scientific space project CMB-Bharat has been presented as a proposal to ISRO and is under consideration.
• In the workshop, project CMB-Bharat, which could help us listen to the faintest murmurs of the early universe, was discussed.
• CMB-Bharat is a proposal for comprehensive next-generation Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) mission in international collaboration with major Indian contribution.
• This referred to quantum gravitational waves, which are different from what LIGO detectors had observed that were classical in nature.

5. Phyto-Pharma Plant Mission

Objectives

• Rs 50 crore Mission aimed at conservation and cultivation of endangered and threatened endemic medicinal plants, and discovery of new botanical drugs for unmet medical needs using the rich traditional ethnobotanical knowledge and biodiversity of these states and at the same time also improve the availability of authentic and quality botanical raw material on a sustainable basis for a boom in the phyto-pharmaceutical industry
• Nodal Ministry –Ministry of Science & Technology

6. Brahmaputra Biodiversity and Biology Boat

Objectives

• B4 will establish a large barge on the river with a well-equipped laboratory for analysis of all components of the entire ecosystem of the river and surroundings. The B4 will link to all the local research institutions along the river, as well as national and international laboratories
• Nodal Ministry –Ministry of Science & Technology

7. INSPIRE (INNOVATION IN SCIENCE PURSUIT FOR INSPIRED RESEARCH)

Objectives

• To attract talent to Science.
• To communicate to the youth of the country the excitements of creative pursuit of science, attract talent to the study of science at an early age and thus build the required critical human resource pool for strengthening and expanding the Science & Technology system and R&D base.
• It does not believe in conducting competitive exams for the identification of talent at any level.
• It believes in and relies on the efficacy of the existing educational structure for the identification of talent.
• INSPIRE has three components:
• i. Scheme for Early Attraction of Talent (SEATS)
• ii. Scholarship for Higher Education (SHE)
• iii. Assured Opportunity for Research Careers (AORC)
• The Inspire Awards have been renamed as MANAK

8. JIGYASA –

Objectives

• Student-Scientist Connect Programme
• Connecting school students and scientists so as to extend student’s classroom learning with that of a very well planned research laboratory-based learning.
• CSIR + Kendriya Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS).

9. VAJRA

Objectives –

• The Government of India recently launched VAJRA (Visiting Advanced Joint Research) Faculty scheme by the Department of Science and Technology which enables NRIs and overseas scientific community to participate and contribute to research and development in India. The Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), a statutory body of the Department will implement the Scheme.
• International Faculty / scientists/technologists including Non-resident Indians (NRI) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) are offered adjunct / visiting faculty positions in Indian Institutions / Universities for a period of 1-3 months under this scheme. The faculty can also undertake the role of teaching /mentoring apart from R&D.
• Public funded institutions and national laboratories are allowed to host the VAJRA faculty.
• Nodal Ministry –Ministry of Science & Technology

10. National Initiative for Developing & Harnessing Innovation (NIDHI)

Objectives

A programme to address the complete chain of innovation ecosystem right from scouting to mentoring to scaling up innovations. launched by DST. Establishment of a research park at IIT Gandhinagar has been supported at a cost of Rs.90 cr.

11.Surya Jyoti

Objectives

• In order to capture daylight and concentrate the same inside a dark room, particularly in the urban slum or rural areas which lack electricity supply, a low cost and energy-efficient Micro Solar Dome (Surya Jyoti) has been tested and developed. -Potential users of this device are10 million households.
• According to preliminary estimates, if this technology is adopted in 10 million households only, it has the potential of saving 1750 million units of energy.
• It would also lead to an emission reduction of about 12.5 million ton of CO2 equivalent, hence giving a fillip to the mission of ‘Clean India, Green India’.
• The manufacturing process, being labour-intensive, would also generate huge job opportunities in the economy.
• Nodal Ministry – Department of Science & Technology.

12. Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan

• Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan is running successfully to motivate children to learn Science, Maths and Technology through observation and experimentation.
• It was launched on 9th July 2015 by Late Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Former President of India.
• Nodal Ministry-HRD Ministry.

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Revision and practice of the mock test have incomparable importance in the UPSC Prelims examination. Considering this year’s prelims being just a week ahead, it’s high time that all of the appearing aspirants should go through the important and most repetiting topics being asked in the exam.

Looking at the demand of the examination, we have started the “Mission Nikalo Prelims’ initiative for better coverage of the syllabus. We have cherrypicked the ‘60 most important topics‘ from where a maximum number of questions have been asked by UPSC in the past 10 years. We have accompanied the mock tests so that the practice angle should also get covered.

It’s the best time to give the final touch to your preparation and cover the topics which have left due to a dearth of time. The link to the initiative is given below:

Mission Nikalo Prelims (Click here)

All the best!

The competition in the UPSC examination is fierce. One day and even writing one answer a day can make a huge difference. UPSC Prelims is on 10th October 2021. Many of you might want to take a break. And honestly, you deserve it!

But writing just 4 answers a day can be a perfect balance to take a break and not lose momentum.

Let’s keep the momentum going. 

Answer writing practices through Civilsdaily’s Daily AWE program can reduce test anxiety and helps you ace the GS Mains answer writing. And what is a better way to practice for UPSC Mains Examinations than attempting Questions which are the closest to the demands of the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination? The more you are accustomed to sitting for a period of time, answering questions, and pacing yourself, the more comfortable you will feel when you actually sit down to take the real UPSC Mains examinations yourself.

We are working hard to make the program more featureful, highlight the best answers, show the competency levels of students.

WHAT THE PROGRAM INCLUDES:

• Daily 4 questions from General studies 1, 2, 3, and 4 will be provided to you. A sample 2 week schedule is available below.
• A Mentor’s Comment will be available for all answers. This can be used as a guidance tool, but we encourage you to write original answers.
• You can write your answer on the same day and attached a scanned copy. Within 4 days, a review of your answer will be provided.
• Also, write the Razor payment ID, when you attached your answer.
• If you are writing answers late, then please tag the mentor, to let him know about your submission. These answers will be evaluated as per the mentor’s schedule.

SCHEDULE:

Here is the schedule for the first week of October to give you an idea about how we will follow your Syllabus:

NOTE: For GS2 and GS3, we take questions from recent current affairs. This ensures coverage of both static and current affairs.

For Course enrollment details, click the link given below.