Author: Root

Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

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Dear students,

31st May 2020 is the D-day for all civil service aspirants.

“Give me six hours to chop down a tree and I will spend the first four sharpening the axe. “

This Quote by Abraham Lincoln clearly sums up how one should prepare for that day. So before entering the battlefield alone should have enough practice. Our Prime Prelims Test series which shall enrich you to acquaint yourself with the pattern of CSE-2020, assess your abilities, rectify your mistakes and make you confident to appear on the examination day.

Our Prime Prelims Test Series follows the same approach as that adopted by UPSC. Our team of experts is quite enriched with the UPSC pattern and focal point of the questions and hence creates more chances for the aspirants to crack civil service examination by appearing our Test Series.

Nothing speaks more than the facts itself rather than a mere jargon. Here is a list of 5 sample questions from the upcoming test which will help you in identifying the standards and approach we follow. (you can skip this if you want to attempt these directly in the test). 

Noone but only you can assess how it will help you in the being the top percentile of aspirants. You have to practice ruthlessly and civils Daily provides you with a platform to hone your skills.

Q1. Which of the following have been provided under the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996?

1. Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Tribes must not be less than one third of the total number of seats.

2. The Gram Sabha can constitute Standing Committees in order to fulfil its responsibilities.

3. The Tenure of such committee is fixed under the Act. Select the correct answer using code given below.

A. 1 only

B.1 and 2 only

C. 2 only

D.1, 2 and 3

Answer – C

Explanation

Salient Provisions of PESA Act In the Schedule areas, every village will have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the electoral rolls for the Panchayats at the village level. In the schedule areas, there will be a minimum of 50% seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) at all the tiers of Panchayats. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

If the area has different tribal communities, the reservation of different tribal communities, the reservation of different tribal communities shall be on the basis of proportion to their population. The chairpersons at all levels of the Panchayats in Schedule areas shall be reserved for STs. If there are no ST members at intermediate or district level Panchayats, the state government shall nominate such underrepresented STs by maximum of one-tenth of the total elected members of the Panchayats. Every legislation on the Panchayats in scheduled area shall be in conformity with the customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practice of the community resources. The Gram Sabha may constitute Standing Committees viz. Peace Committee, Justice Committee, Resource Planning and Management Committee, Intoxication Control Committee, Debt Control Committee, Market Committee, Sabha Kosh Committee and others as deemed appropriate by the Gram Sabha in order to fulfil its responsibilities regarding various aspects of the working of the village, whose members shall be elected in an open meeting of the Gram Sabha among members of the Gram Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Besides, temporary and ad-hoc committees may be constituted as per requirement. The tenure of all the Standing Committees will be of one or two years as decided by the Gram Sabha. Hecne Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q2.With reference to functions and powers of a District judge, consider the following statements:

1. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters.

2. He has supervisory powers over all subordinate courts in the district.

3. Capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.1 only

B.1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D.1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. Statement 2 is correct. The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Statement 3 is correct. The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.

Q3. In the context of local governance, principle of subsidiarity stipulates that:

1. functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the smallest unit of governance possible.

2. functions shall be delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot perform the task. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both 1 and 2

D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

Explanation

‘The principle of subsidiarity stipulates that: 1. functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the smallest unit of governance possible and 2. delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot perform the task. Hence, both statements are correct.

The citizen delegates those functions he cannot perform, to the community. Functions that the community cannot discharge are passed on to the local governments in the smallest tiers, and so on, from smaller tiers to larger tiers, from local government to the State Governments, and from the States to the Union. Hence, the citizen and the community are the centres of governance. In place of traditional hierarchies, there will be ever-enlarging concentric circles of government and delegation is outward depending on necessity.

Advantages – First, local decision-making improves efficiency, promotes self-reliance at the local level, encourages competition and nurtures innovation. Second, democracy is based on three fundamental assumptions: all citizens are equal irrespective of station and birth; the citizen is the ultimate sovereign; and the citizen has the capacity to decide what is in his best interest. Only when these principles are put in practice can a democratic system derive its full legitimacy. Subsidiarity is the concrete expression of these foundations of a democratic society. Third, once decision-making and its consequences are integrally linked at the local level, people can better appreciate that hard choices need to be made. Such awareness promotes greater responsibility, enlightened citizenship and maturing of democracy

Q4.  Which of the following is/are the correct statements about Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat?

1. Gram Sabha consists of all the people living in the area of a Gram Panchayat.

2. Gram Sabha also consider the taxation proposals and auditing report of the Gram Panchayat.

3. Gram Panchayat is composed of such number of members as may be decided in accordance with the size of the Population. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A.1 only

B.1 and 3 only

C.2 and 3 only

D.1, 2 and 3

Answer -C

Explanation

It is a three-tier structure, which consists of Zila Parishad at the district level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Gram Panchayats at the village level. The Gram Panchayat is further subdivided into Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat and Nyaya Panchayat. Difference Between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat Gram Sabha is used to mean a general assembly of all the people of a village, who have attained the age of 18 years and their name is entered in the voter list. The executive committee of the Gram Sabha is known as Gram Panchayat which consists of the representatives elected by the Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Gram Sabha also consider the taxation proposals and auditing report of the Gram Panchayat. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Gram Panchayat is composed of such number of members may be decided in accordance with the size of the Population. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Gram Sabha Vs Gram Panchayat Meaning Gram Sabha refers to the legislative body, that operates at village level, and takes into account the annual budget and audit reports of the Gram Panchayat. Gram Panchayat is the lower tier of the Panchayati Raj functioning at the village level for welfare and development of the village. Body It is a permanent body. It is a temporary body. Member Every person whose name is registered in the voter list of the respective village. Ward members, Panches and Sarpanch are its members. Election The members of the Sabha are not elected ones. Members of the Panchayat are elected by the members of Sabha directly. Meetings Two meetings in a year are compulsory. One meeting in a month should be held.

Q5.  Which of the following are appointed by the President by a warrant under his hand and seal?

1. CAG

2. Election Commissioner of India

3. Chairman, UPSC

4. Chairman, Finance Commission

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

 

A.1 only

B.1 and 2 only

C.1,2 and 3 only

D.1,2,3 and 4

Answer – A

 

Explanation

Only Statement 1 is correct. It is one of the constitutional office which is appointed by the Prsident by a warrant under his hand and seal. It is also the only office mentioned in 2nd schedule. Others include Central Vigilance Commissioners, Governor, Chairperson and vice chairperson of National Commission for SCs, Judges Of Supreme Court and High court are appointed under Hand and seal of President. Warrant: authority, seal: emblem and hand: here, in person.

The CAG is appointed by the President of India under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution with a warrant under her hand and seal. This implies that the appointment of CAG will be authorized by the President himself and his seal will be the testimony of it. In other ‘normal’ appointments like all India services, he takes the decision but doesn’t physically sign. It is his secretary who certifies on behalf of the President.

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Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

Dear All,

Civilsdaily continues with the tradition of bringing top rankers within the reach of aspirants. This time we have AIR 145 Namita Sharma and AIR 242 Vishal Singh.

You are cordially invited to an open session with these toppers. Grab this great opportunity to interact and clarify all those persisting doubts directly from people who have ‘been there and done that’!

The session will be held on 20th Jun, tomorrow from 10 AM onwards. Venue – Near Connaught Place. The exact venue will be communicated to students once their attendance is confirmed.

Interested students are expected to email hello@civilsdaily.com.

Our previous 1-1 sessions have benefitted students a lot.  They have left the place with a lot more clarity and precise strategy. Nothing beats the dynamics of speaking with a topper face to face.

Unfortunately, we have limited slots on a first come first serve basis. Please let us know your availability asap.

Please note that the seats are limited and will be allotted on first come first serve basis. So, kindly confirm your attendance as soon as possible.

All the other details will be provided through a separate email after your confirmation.

Regards

 

Students,

If you have cleared interviews last year, then most of you are re-appearing for the exam either because you missed by a small margin or because you want to improve your rank. 

Dear students,

We are excited to host Nabal. Nabal is one of the youngest to enter the services. Besides he has a background in Chartered Accountancy. His story is a complete contrast from today’s session of Deb.

His session will be held tomorrow – 14th June

Time – Sharp 2.15 PM

Venue – Near Connaught Place. The exact venue will be communicated to students once their attendance is confirmed.

Interested students are expected to email hello@civilsdaily.com. 

Our previous 1-1 sessions have benefitted students a lot.  They have left the place with a lot more clarity and precise strategy.

Unfortunately, we have limited slots on a first come first serve basis. Please let us know your availability asap. 

thanks

 

Click here to enroll for the Prime Prelims TS

Dear Students,

With changing patterns of the exam, institutes have almost let go of the tradition of providing the list of repeated questions and analysis around the same.

We are out with the first draft of a compilation of the list of repeated questions. This list does *NOT* contain questions from our free initiatives – Nikaalo Prelims, Prelims Daily + Video Discussion and Open Tests.

Further, we will be adding more questions as soon as our analysis ends.

A 1-1 match is almost impossible. You will notice that we have asked questions on similar themes. We have tried to dig deep and get hold of the important keywords/terms so we could test you on the same. 

If you do nothing but study our TS solutions thoroughly (meaning do some digging on your own around terms asked, concepts, etc and retain them) you will easily clear the exam.

Close to 30 questions that would have given you an edge over competition were covered in our Test Series. With easier questions combined, almost 70 questions were solvable using our Test Series.

Having said that, we realize that we need to go deeper and ask tougher questions. At the same time, it is important that we highlight the tough questions we have asked so you can keep an eye on them.

 

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1. Actual Question in the exam

What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA

Consider the following statements about Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) :

1. It is under the aegis of the Indian Banks’ Association.

2. It follows the recommendations of the C. Rangarajan committee on financial inclusion.

3. Private and Foreign banks have signed ICA agreements under Sashakt project to resolve stressed assets.

Select the correct statements using the code given below

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2. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”

Original Question from Test Series

Test – Economics

With reference to Asian Infrastructure and Investment Bank, consider the following statements:

1. It is a brain child of China.
2. The primary aim of the AIIB is to promote infrastructure development.

Select the correct ​statements using the code below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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3. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE ‘is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.

2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

5G is a wireless communication technology and the next generation mobile networks technology after 4G LTE networks. Consider the following regarding this:

1. 5G will help aid incorporate Artificial Intelligence in our lives.
2. It will create the ecosystem for Internet of Things (IoT).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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4. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017, consider the following statements:

1. This act applies to all organisations with 20 or more employees,
2. It has made it mandatory for every organisation with 100 or more employees to have a crèche.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – DEC CA

With reference to the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017, consider the following statements:

1. This act applies to all organizations with 20 or more employees,
2. It has made it mandatory for every organization with 100 or more employees to have a crèche.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

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5. Actual Question in the exam

The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

a) Integrated Rural Programme

b) Lead Bank Scheme

c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

d) National Skill Development Mission

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS

Consider the following statements regarding Lead Bank Scheme:
1. Under the scheme, individual banks
adopt particular districts for intensive
development.
2. It is applicable only to Public Sector
Banks.
3. It covers all the districts in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

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6. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.

2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

With reference to India’s external debt profile, consider the following statements:

1. NRI deposits form the highest component of India’s external debt.
2. A large majority share of total external debt is in the form of long-term debt.
3. US dollar-denominated debt continues to be the largest component of India’s external debt.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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7. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector

2. Increasing government expenditure

3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA

Which of the following factor will affect Rupee :
1. Trade wars.
2. Sanctions on Iran.
3. Oil prices
4. The US Fed rate decisions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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8. Actual Question in the exam

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

a) Certificate of Deposit

b) Commercial Paper

c) Promissory Note

d) Participatory Note

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS

Consider the following statements about Participatory Notes:

1. They are offshore derivative instruments.
2. They are used by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) who are registered with SEBI.
3. They are used on Indian shares, but at a location outside of India.
Select the correct statements using the code given below:

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9. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ENVIRONMENT

Consider the following statements,

1. e-Green Watch has been developed for online monitoring of various afforestation works being carried out using CAMPA funds.
2. Net Present value [NPV] of forest is not defined under Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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10. Actual Question in the exam

Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates
are calculated by comparing the prices of the
same basket of goods and services in different
countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth
the largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA

According to the Purchasing Power Parity theory, the value of a currency should remain constant in terms of which of the below it can buy in different countries :

a) Bonds
b) Services
c) Goods
d) Capital

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11. Actual Question in the exam

Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May 2018?

a) Australia

b) Canada

c) The European Union

d) The United States of America

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JULY CA TEST

General Data Protection Regulation recently seen in news is related to which of the following:

a) United States
b) WIPO
c) European Union
d) WTO

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12. Actual Question in the exam

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

d) Increase in the population of the country

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS

WIth reference to Measure of Money Supply in India,
consider the following statements:

1.M1 is equal to the sum of Currency with Public, Demand
Deposit with the public in the Banks, Other Deposits held
by the public with RBI.
2.M3 is also known as Broad Money.
3.M4 is the most liquid form of the money supply.

Select the correct statements using the code given below:
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

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13. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FEB CA

As per the Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006 which of the following entity is considered as Minor Forest Produce?

1. Honey

2. Lac

3. Tendu Leaves

4. Bamboo

5. Wood Oil Select the correct alternative

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14. Actual Question in the exam

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

a) Article 19

b) Article 21

c) Article 25

d) Article 29

Original Question from Test Series –

Which of the following rights has been
declared as part of Article 21?

1. Right to travel abroad
2. Right to shelter
3. Right to reputation
4. Right to freedom from noise pollution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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15. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.

2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

With reference to the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001, consider the following statements.

1. It recognizes and protects the rights of both breeders as well as farmers in relation to the plant varieties.
2. The Act facilitates the protection of only new plant varieties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the National Gene Fund,

1. It has been established by the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Authority.
2. It receives the contribution from National and State govt. only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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16. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

b) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

c) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.

Original Question from Test Series –

With reference to the Recombinant DNA technology, consider the following statements:
1. It involves joining together of DNA molecules from different species, which are then inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations.
2. It can be used to increase yield and improve the nutritional content of plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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17. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series

Test – FEB CA

The “Make Listening Safe” Initiative recently seen in news is organized by:

We had a tougher question.

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18. Actual Question in the exam

Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.

It enabled scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – SCIENCE TEST

With respect to black holes in space, consider the following statements:
1. It is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape.
2. It can result from the dying stars.
3. Milky Way is the only galaxy with no black holes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In the context of ‘Black holes’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Most black holes form from the remnants of a large star that dies in a supernova explosion.
2. Black holes were predicted by Einstein’s theory of General relativity.
3. The Event Horizon Telescope is the first to capture an image of a black hole.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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19. Actual Question in the exam

Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

Consider the following statements,

1. Antimicrobial resistance occurs due to resistant bacteria and parasites only.
2. Red Line campaign to create mass awareness against the misuse of antibiotics.

Which of the following statements are correct?

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20. Actual Question in the exam

What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – SCIENCE TEST

CRISPR-Cas9 technology has become popular in recent years. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CORRECT STATEMENT REGARDING CRISPR-Cas9.
1. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA and RNA sequences and modify gene function.
2. It was adapted from the natural defense mechanisms of bacteria and archaea.
3. The protein Cas9 is an enzyme that acts like a pair of molecular scissors, capable of cutting strands of DNA.
Select the code from the following:

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21. Actual Question in the exam

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Original Question from Test Series –

Hepatitis C has emerged as a major public health problem in India in the recent past. In this context, consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C:

1. It is a viral disease that infects the liver.
2. It is transmitted by contaminated food.
3. It does not show symptoms immediately after infection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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22. Actual Question in the exam

With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FLT 7

With respect to the Mansabdari system under the Mughal rule, consider the following statements:

1. The mansabdars had both civil as well as military functions.
2. All mansabdars were paid in cash.
3. It was hereditary in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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23. Actual Question in the exam

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

a) International Monetary Fund

b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

c) World Economic Forum

d) World Bank

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – JAN CA

Which of the following are correctly matched?
Reports Published by
1. Outbreak Readiness and Business Impact Report INSEAD
2. Global Competitiveness Index World Economic Forum
3. Global Risks Report World Bank
4. Airpocalypse III Greenpeace

Select the correct alternative from the following codes:

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24. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in III India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Consider the following statements regarding Asiatic lion:

1. Asiatic Lions are listed as ‘critically Endangered’ under
the IUCN Red List.
2. It’s a project by the Centre and the Gujarat
government undertaking “habitat improvement” measures.

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25. Actual Question in the exam

In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

a) poverty rates vary from State to State

b) price levels vary from State to State

c) Gross State Product varies from State to State

d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ECONOMICS TEST

With reference to Poverty Estimation Committees in India,
consider the following statements:

1. The Tendulkar Committee suggested to do away with
the calorie-based criteria.
2. Rangarajan Committee recommended for state-specific
poverty lines.

Select the correct ​statements using the code below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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26. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

d) Reducing the global warming

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – NOV CA

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI)’

1. It could limit the effect and impact of climate change due to rising levels of greenhouse gases
2. It involves injection of all the inert gases

Select the correct code:

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27. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

a) Extraction of rare earth elements

b) Natural gas extraction technologies

c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – SCIENCE TEST

Which of the following methods can be used to harness energy from Solid Waste?

1. Pyrolysis
2. Combustion
3. Pelletisation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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28. Actual Question in the exam

Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children

c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – ENVT. TEST

With reference to microplastics, consider the following
statements:

1. They are responsible for the bulk of the Great
Pacific Garbage Patch.
2. Microplastics can be ingested directly by the zooplankton.
3. They are commonly found in cosmetic and toothpaste.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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29. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FLT 4

Consider the following pairs:

Poet:  Contemporary king
1. Tulsi Das: Akbar
2. Amir Khusrau: Alauddin Khili
3. Surdas: Shah Jahan

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Which of the following are the famous writings of kabir?

1.Sakhi Granth
2.Anurag Sagar
3.Bijak
4.Gita Govinda

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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30. Actual Question in the exam

On 21st June, the Sun

a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Original Question from Test Series –

Test –  March CA

Consider the following statements,

1. The equinox is the moment in Earth’s orbit when the sun appears to cross the celestial equator.
2. The vernal equinox comes on September 22/23.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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31. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.

3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test March CA

Which of the following are impacts on the environment by Nitrogen pollution?

1. The release of Nitric Oxide is essentially a
greenhouse gas which is harmful to the environment.
2. Nitrogen pollution creates dead zones in our waterways and oceans.
3. Excessive nitrogen fertiliser application contributes
to soil nutrient depletion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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32. Actual Question in the exam

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test FLT – 6 

Consider the following statements about Hydrogen-CNG (H-CNG):

1. Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG
can reduce the emission of carbon monoxide up to 99%.
2. The thermal efficiency of HCNG increases with increase in load.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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33. Actual Question in the exam

Consider the following pairs:

Sea: Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea: Albania

2. Black Sea: Croatia

3. Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean Sea: Morocco

5. Red Sea: Syria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

Original Question from Test Series –

Test – FEB CA

Which of the following share(s) border with both Caspian Sea and Persian Gulf?
1. Iraq
2. Iran
3. Turkmenistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following lie along the Mediterranean coasts?

1. Syria,
2.Lebanon
3. Cyprus
4. Gaza Strip.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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Watch this video for further analysis – 

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