A dream does not become reality through magic; it takes sweat, determination, and hard work. 

The Streak Daily Initiative is aimed to help out UPSC aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

So, let us look at Today’s activities.

For full-time Aspirants

1. Panchayati Raj and Municipalities

For working Aspirants

1. Tribunals
2. Subordinate Courts
3. Judicial review
4. PIL
5. Judicial Activism

Target Assignment by Ravi Sir:

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(1) To provide self-governance

(2) To recognize traditional rights

(3) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

(4) To free tribal people from exploitation

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 2,3 and 4

C. 1,2 and 4

D. all of above

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. MGNREGA has in-built provisions for social audit

2. Any resident of a panchayat can do a social audit who is part of the gram sabha.

3. CAG conducts accounting and audit of PRIs by the 73rd amendment of the constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct regarding social audits in India?

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which the following statements is/are correct with regards to District Planning Committee?

1. It is provided by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It consolidates the plan prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities of the district.
3. All its members are elected by the elected members of the Panchayats and Municipalities from amongst themselves.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 3 only

Q5. Consider the following statements about State Election Commission? 

1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction, and control of election to the panchayats.

3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Q6. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cantonment Boards?

1. A cantonment board is established for municipal administration of defense personnel residing in civilian areas.
2. The executive officer of the cantonment board belongs to Central Cadre.
3. A cantonment board is created by the State Government but administered by the Central government on grounds of national security.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 3 only

Video Discussion of Prelims Questions by Santosh Sir:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Would you say that implementation of the Panchayati system has led to a real restructuring of the Indian polity? (15)

Q: ‘Although District planning committees and Metropolitan planning committees have been provided, those remain mostly on paper.’ Comment. (10) 

Video Discussion of Mains Questions by Sukanya Ma’am:

Stay tuned with us for tomorrow’s targets.

——————————————————————————————–

Visit our course page for further details

Questions for the Day:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Would you say that implementation of the Panchayati system has led to a real restructuring of the Indian polity? (15)

Q: ‘Although District planning committees and Metropolitan planning committees have been provided, those remain mostly on paper.’ Comment. (10) 

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(1) To provide self-governance

(2) To recognize traditional rights

(3) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

(4) To free tribal people from exploitation

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 2,3 and 4

C. 1,2 and 4

D. all of above

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. MGNREGA has in-built provisions for social audit

2. Any resident of a panchayat can do a social audit who is part of the gram sabha.

3. CAG conducts accounting and audit of PRIs by the 73rd amendment of the constitution.

Which of the above statements is/are correct regarding social audits in India?

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which the following statements is/are correct with regards to District Planning Committee?

1. It is provided by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It consolidates the plan prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities of the district.
3. All its members are elected by the elected members of the Panchayats and Municipalities from amongst themselves.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 3 only

Q5. Consider the following statements about State Election Commission? 

1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State.

2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction, and control of election to the panchayats.

3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Q6. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cantonment Boards?

1. A cantonment board is established for municipal administration of defense personnel residing in civilian areas.
2. The executive officer of the cantonment board belongs to Central Cadre.
3. A cantonment board is created by the State Government but administered by the Central government on grounds of national security.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 3 only

Sukanya madam’s video would be out at 7:00 PM and Santosh sir would provide the video at 9:00 PM.

Watch this space for more updates exclusively for you.

A dream does not become reality through magic; it takes sweat, determination, and hard work. 

The Streak Daily Initiative is aimed to help out UPSC aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

So, let us look at Today’s activities.

For full-time Aspirants

1. High Court
2. Tribunals
3. Subordinate Courts

For working Aspirants

1. Supreme Court
2. High Court

Target Assignment by Ravi Sir:

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1.Consider the following statements regarding writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Court:

1.Writ jurisdiction of the High Court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
2.The writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the power of judicial review of high courts:

1. High court can review the laws enacted by state legislatures only and not the ones enacted by the Centre.
2. High court can not interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government, as the Supreme Court is the sole interpreter of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), consider the following statements:

1.The members of CAT have the status of judges of High Courts.
2.The members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
3.The appeals against the order of CAT can be made only in the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A 1 and 2 only
• B 2 and 3 only
• C 1 and 3 only
• D 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which of the following categories

1) levy, assessment, collection, and enforcement of any tax;
2) foreign exchange, import, and export across customs frontiers;
3) industrial and labor disputes

Which of those options are correct regarding article 323B?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) all of the above
d) None of above

Q5. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the functions and powers of a District judge?

1. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters.
2. He has supervisory powers over all subordinate courts in the district.
3. Capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• A 1 only
• B 2 and 3 only
• C 1 and 3 only
• D 1, 2 and 3

Video Discussion of Prelims Questions by Santosh Sir:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Are the high court’s power to issue writs wider than that of the Supreme Court of India? (10)

Q: “The Central Administrative Tribunal which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its powers as an independent judicial authority.” Explain. (15)

Video Discussion of Mains Questions by Sukanya Ma’am:

Stay tuned with us for tomorrow’s targets.

——————————————————————————————–

Visit our course page for further details

Questions for the Day:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Are the high court’s power to issue writs wider than that of the Supreme Court of India? (10)

Q: “The Central Administrative Tribunal which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its powers as an independent judicial authority.” Explain. (15)

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1.Consider the following statements regarding writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Court:

1.Writ jurisdiction of the High Court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
2.The writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the power of judicial review of high courts:

1. High court can review the laws enacted by state legislatures only and not the ones enacted by the Centre.
2. High court can not interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government, as the Supreme Court is the sole interpreter of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), consider the following statements:

1.The members of CAT have the status of judges of High Courts.
2.The members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
3.The appeals against the order of CAT can be made only in the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• A 1 and 2 only
• B 2 and 3 only
• C 1 and 3 only
• D 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which of the following categories

1) levy, assessment, collection, and enforcement of any tax;
2) foreign exchange, import, and export across customs frontiers;
3) industrial and labor disputes

Which of those options are correct regarding article 323B?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) all of the above
d) None of above

Q5. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the functions and powers of a District judge?

1. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters.
2. He has supervisory powers over all subordinate courts in the district.
3. Capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

• A 1 only
• B 2 and 3 only
• C 1 and 3 only
• D 1, 2 and 3

Sukanya madam’s video would be out at 7:00 PM and Santosh sir would provide the video at 9:00 PM.

Watch this space for more updates exclusively for you.

A dream does not become reality through magic; it takes sweat, determination, and hard work. 

The Streak Daily Initiative is aimed to help out UPSC aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

So, let us look at Today’s activities.

For full-time Aspirants

1. Supreme Court
2. Judicial review
3. Judicial Activism
4. PIL

For working Aspirants

1. Parliamentary Committees and Forums
2. State Legislature

Target Assignment by Ravi Sir:

Try these Prelims Questions :

1.Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.

2.Disputes related to the elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the House of the People are determined by an election petition before the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Q2.With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) the Law Commission

Q4.The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction.

(c) Original jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

Q5.In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.

Q6. Consider the following statements

1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7.Consider the following statements:

1.The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.

2.The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8.Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with 

(a) judicial review 

(b) judicial activism 

(c) judicial intervention 

(d) judicial sanctity

Q9.Which of these constitute Judicial Activism?

1. The judiciary plays an important role in upholding and promoting the rights of citizens in a country.

2. Maneka Gandhi Case

3. Cancellation of 2G spectrum licence

4. It made the Judicial process more participatory and democratic.

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 1,3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. All of them

Video Discussion of Prelims Questions by Santosh Sir:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Is it possible to distinguish between judicial review and judicial activism in India? Has the judiciary shifted towards judicial activism? (15)

Q: Discuss how the appointment of judges in the supreme court still remains a controversial issue. (10)

Video Discussion of Mains Questions by Sukanya Ma’am:

Stay tuned with us for tomorrow’s targets.

——————————————————————————————–

Visit our course page for further details

Questions for the Day:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Is it possible to distinguish between judicial review and judicial activism in India? Has the judiciary shifted towards judicial activism? (15)

Q: Discuss how the appointment of judges in the supreme court still remains a controversial issue. (10)

Try these Prelims Questions :

1.Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.

2.Disputes related to the elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the House of the People are determined by an election petition before the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Q2.With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India

(b) the Parliament

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) the Law Commission

Q4.The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction

(b) appellate jurisdiction.

(c) Original jurisdiction

(d) writ jurisdiction

Q5.In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.

Q6. Consider the following statements

1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7.Consider the following statements:

1.The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.

2.The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8.Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with 

(a) judicial review 

(b) judicial activism 

(c) judicial intervention 

(d) judicial sanctity

Q9.Which of these constitute Judicial Activism?

1. The judiciary plays an important role in upholding and promoting the rights of citizens in a country.

2. Maneka Gandhi Case

3. Cancellation of 2G spectrum licence

4. It made the Judicial process more participatory and democratic.

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 1,3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. All of them

Sukanya madam’s video would be out at 7:00 PM and Santosh sir would provide the video at 9:00 PM.

Watch this space for more updates exclusively for you.

A dream does not become reality through magic; it takes sweat, determination, and hard work. 

The Streak Daily Initiative is aimed to help out UPSC aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

So, let us look at Today’s activities.

For full-time Aspirants

1. Parliamentary Committees and Forums
2. State Legislature

For working Aspirants

1. Parliament

Target Assignment by Ravi Sir:

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Q2. Consider the options about Public accounts committee (PAC) and Estimates committee(EC)

1. Both are standing Committees  

2.  PAC has more members than EC

3. PAC has members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, while EC has only members from Lok Sabha

4. While  PAC examines the report of CAG, EC examines the estimates of the budget.  

Which of the above statements are true:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. All of them

Q3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

1. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of Parliament 

2. Includes examination of income and expenditure of all public sector undertaking  

3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee 

4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : 

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 1 and 3 

(c) 2 and 4 

(d) Only 4 

Q4. Consider the following statements about Department Standing Committees:

1. They are 24 in number

2. There are 16 such committees in Rajya Sabha and 8 in Lok Sabha

3. Number of members in each is 30

4. They examine demands for grants and can propose cut-motions

Which of the above statements are true:

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of them

Q5. Consider the following statements about Joint Parliamentary Committee(JPC)

1. It is a standing committee of parliament

2. It enquires matters of public interest

3. JPC enquired about Bofors scam

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. all of them

Q 6. Consider the following statements about parliamentary forums:

1. The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was constituted in the year 2005 

2. The speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums

3. Each forum consists of not more than 31 members

4. Provides an informal platform for members to interact with ministers

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1,3 and 4

D. all of them

Q 7. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Q 8. Consider the following statements

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 9. The functions of which of the following bodies in India are limited to advisory nature only?

(a) Legislative Council 

(b) Rajya Sabha 

(c) Lok Sabha 

(d) Legislative Assembly

Q 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Legislative Council?

(a) 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies 

(b) President has the final power to decide about its composition 

(c) It is not subject to dissolution 

(d) Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40

Video Discussion of Prelims Questions by Santosh Sir:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Distinguish between ‘Department-related parliamentary standing committees’ and ‘ Parliamentary forums’. (10)

Q: Discuss the role played by State Legislative Councils. How are they different from the Rajya Sabha? Also, examine their usefulness for Indian states. (15)

Video Discussion of Mains Questions by Sukanya Ma’am:

Stay tuned with us for tomorrow’s targets.

——————————————————————————————–

Visit our course page for further details

Questions for the Day:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Distinguish between ‘Department-related parliamentary standing committees’ and ‘ Parliamentary forums’. (10)
Q: Discuss the role played by State Legislative Councils. How are they different from the Rajya Sabha? Also, examine their usefulness for Indian states. (15)

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Q2. Consider the options about Public accounts committee (PAC) and Estimates committee(EC)

1. Both are standing Committees  

2.  PAC has more members than EC

3. PAC has members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, while EC has only members from Lok Sabha

4. While  PAC examines the report of CAG, EC examines the estimates of the budget.  

Which of the above statements are true:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. All of them

Q3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

1. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of Parliament 

2. Includes examination of income and expenditure of all public sector undertaking  

3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee 

4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : 

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 1 and 3 

(c) 2 and 4 

(d) Only 4 

Q4. Consider the following statements about Department Standing Committees:

1. They are 24 in number

2. There are 16 such committees in Rajya Sabha and 8 in Lok Sabha

3. Number of members in each is 30

4. They examine demands for grants and can propose cut-motions

Which of the above statements are true:

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of them

Q5. Consider the following statements about Joint Parliamentary Committee(JPC)

1. It is a standing committee of parliament

2. It enquires matters of public interest

3. JPC enquired about Bofors scam

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. all of them

Q 6. Consider the following statements about parliamentary forums:

1. The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was constituted in the year 2005 

2. The speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums

3. Each forum consists of not more than 31 members

4. Provides an informal platform for members to interact with ministers

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1,3 and 4

D. all of them

Q 7. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Q 8. Consider the following statements

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 9. The functions of which of the following bodies in India are limited to advisory nature only?

(a) Legislative Council 

(b) Rajya Sabha 

(c) Lok Sabha 

(d) Legislative Assembly

Q 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Legislative Council?

(a) 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies 

(b) President has the final power to decide about its composition 

(c) It is not subject to dissolution 

(d) Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40

Sukanya madam’s video would be out at 7:00 PM and Santosh sir would provide the video at 9:00 PM.

Watch this space for more updates exclusively for you.

A dream does not become reality through magic; it takes sweat, determination, and hard work. 

The Streak Daily Initiative is aimed to help out UPSC aspirants in their day-to-day preparation. You can follow the monthly, weekly, and daily timetables and continue this streak until you find yourself on the final list.

So, let us look at Today’s activities.

For full-time Aspirants

1. Council of Ministers at Central and State level
2. Cabinet Committees
3. Parliament

For working Aspirants

1. Council of Ministers at Central and State level
2. Cabinet Committees
3. PM & CM

Target Assignment by Ravi Sir

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the constitution

(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Q2.Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
   Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) only 1

(b) only 2 and 3

(c) only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences
of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1.Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2.Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3.Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2and 3

Q4. Which of the following are the members of the Cabinet Committee on
Security?

1. Prime Minister

2. Minister of Home Affairs

3. Minister of External Affairs

4. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1,2 and 3

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) All are correct

Q5. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Q 6. Consider the following statements:

1.In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2.According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 7. Consider the following statements:

1.The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.

2.The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.

3.There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q 8. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No confidence motion’

1. Only a motion expressing want of confidence in the
   council of ministers as a whole is admitted
2. A no confidence motion needs to set out grounds on
   which it is based.
3. Any no confidence motion once moved can’t be
   withdrawn
4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of
   no confidence

Which of the following given above are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 9. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?

(a) Short duration discussion

(b) Question hour

(c) Adjournment motion

(d) Zero hour

Q 10. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect
is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Q 11. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the
Constitution:

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session
   of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses.
2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a
   Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368.
3. To amend 7 th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more
   than half of the State legislature is essential.
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in
   the House of the People.

Which of these are correct?

(a) 1 ,2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All are correct

Video Discussion of Prelims Questions by Santosh Sir:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Identify the major obstacles in the smooth functioning of Parliamentary democracy in India. (15)

Q: ‘The essential purpose of the Cabinet committee is to relieve the cabinet of some burden of work.’ Discuss (10)

Video Discussion of Mains Questions by Sukanya Ma’am:

Stay tuned with us for tomorrow’s targets.

——————————————————————————————–

Visit our course page for further details

Questions for the Day:

Try these Mains Questions :

Q: Identify the major obstacles in the smooth functioning of Parliamentary democracy in India. (15)

Q: ‘The essential purpose of the Cabinet committee is to relieve the cabinet of some burden of work.’ Discuss (10)

Try these Prelims Questions :

Q1. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the constitution

(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Q2.Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
   Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
   

(a) only 1

(b) only 2 and 3

(c) only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences
of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1.Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2.Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2and 3

Q4. Which of the following are the members of the Cabinet committee on
Security?

1. Prime Minister

2. Minister of Home Affairs

3. Minister of External Affairs

4. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1,2 and 3

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) All are correct

Q5. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Q 6.Consider the following statements:

1.In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2.According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 7. Consider the following statements:

1.The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.

2.The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.

3.There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q 8. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No confidence motion’

1. Only a motion expressing want of confidence in the
   council of ministers as a whole is admitted
2. A no confidence motion needs to set out grounds on
   which it is based.
3. Any no confidence motion once moved can’t be
   withdrawn
4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of
   no confidence

Which of the following given above are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 9. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?

(a) Short duration discussion

(b) Question hour

(c) Adjournment motion

(d) Zero hour

Q 10. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect
is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Q 11. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the
Constitution:

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session
   of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses.
2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a
   Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368.
3. To amend 7 th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more
   than half of the State legislature is essential.
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in
   the House of the People.

Which of these are correct ?

(a) 1 ,2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) All are correct

Sukanya madams video would be out at 7:00 PM and Santosh sir would provide the video at 9:00 PM.

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