Author: Explains

  • [Factoids] International Seabed Authority

    Recently in news: India’s exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from seabed in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by five years by International Seabed Authority.

    Objective: Organize, regulate and control all mineral (non-living resources) related activities in the international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction.

    Members: The Authority has 167 members and the European Union, composed of all parties to the Law of the Sea Convention

    Headquarters: Kingston, Jamaica

    Year: Founded1994

  • [Static Revision] Economic Growth versus Economic Development

    Real versus Nominal GDP

    Nominal GDP is the money value of all the goods and services produced in a year. Nominal GDP is calculated at the current market prices. However, Nominal GDP does not truly indicate the real performance of the economy as the prices changes over time.

    Back to Basics: Suppose, India as a country only produced cars in its economy. In the year 2016, India produced 100 Cars which were sold at RS 100,000 each. India’s GDP in this case will be RS 10,00,00,00 (100*100000).

    In the year 2017, supposedly due to demonetization India only produced only 90 Cars, but their price has risen to RS 15,0000. India’s GDP in the year 2017 will be 1,35,00,000.

    The Increase from RS 10,00,00,00 to RS 1,35,00,000 is the nominal GDP. The GDP of India has risen not because we have produce more units of Car but because the prices of the car have increased.

    Therefore, the Nominal GDP does not capture the changes in the real economy.

     

    Real GDP

    The real GDP is calculated as the money value of all the goods and services produced in a year using the constant set of market prices that have prevailed in the certain chosen base year. The Real GDP is calculated at a fixed set of prices so that only the changes in real output or real production of goods and services is captured.

    Back to Basics: Suppose, India as a country only produced cars in its economy. In the year 2016, India produced 100 Cars which were sold at RS 100,000 each. India’s GDP in this case will be RS 10,00,00,00 (100*100000).

    In the year 2017, supposedly due to demonetization India only produced only 90 Cars. If we take the year 2011-12 as the base year and assumes that the price of the car in that year was RS 90,000. Then, India’s Real GDP will be 90*90,000= 81,00,000.

    The Nominal GDP is RS 1,35,00,000 whereas the Real GDP is RS 81,00,000. The difference is due to the prices which have risen from 90,000 in the base year to RS 15,00,00 in the current year.

    Limitations of the Concept of GDP/Economic Growth

    Note for Students: The following examples will make it clear why GDP is not a perfect measure of Well Being.

    • Suppose, due to unemployment in the economy the youth drifts towards Crime. To overcome the crime rate, the government decides to hire more police personnel. Due to the hiring of police personnel, the economic activity in the economy increased as the newly employed personnel will be paid salaries, which they will spend on purchasing goods and services. Hence Production of Goods and services will increase. The final outcome is increase in the GDP.

    Now tell me is this increase in the GDP is worth considering? The GDP has risen due to wrong reason, i.e., increase in crime.

    In the above case, the GDP fails to capture the deteriorating situation of the society.

    • Suppose, the Government of India decides to mine resources from the fragile Western Ghats. The mining of the resource leads to the production of resources which are used in the production of goods and services. The increased production will lead to increase in the GDP.                                 But, due to mining activity, the population near the Ghats were disposed of or removed. At the same time, the mining activity has made the region prone to flooding. The floods in the coming year will destroy valuable life and property. The loss due to dispossession and flooding will not be captured in the calculation of the GDP. Thus, in this case also GDP has risen but at the cost of negative externality in the form of loss of livelihood and lives.

    Economic Growth versus Economic Development

    The two-argument provided above are also valid for the shortcomings of growth.

    Economic Growth is a monetary concept. It only takes into account the value of goods and services produced in the economy. It tells how much a country has progressed in terms of economic indicators like GDP, Per Capita Income, Production, employments etc. It measures only quantifiable outcomes.

    Let’s Understand Growth

    The First Stage:

    The story so far is very impressive a business-friendly government with pro-business policy increased growth and employment.

    The Second Stage:

    The Third Stage

    The Fourth and Final stage: The Crisis

    The above model is just an easy explanation of a complex system. Is it really the pro-business policies of the government that have led to the crisis?

    The answer is no. It is the lack of balanced policy or a single point focus on the growth that has led to the crisis.

    What has the Government missed in the process?

    • If at the very beginning, along with pro-business policies, the government had adopted the policies to promote education, skill development, research and innovation, health and social empowerment, the outcome could have been very different. A progressive education and health sector along with technological advancement would have taken care of skilled and educated labour needed in the production processes.

    The First lesson, therefore, is “Along with the policies to promote Physical Capital the government must promote the policies of Human Capital”. Therefore, the first difference, “Promotion of Physical Capital is a growth oriented measure, but promoting the Human capital along with Physical Capital is a development oriented measure”.

    • In the above setup, the government had adopted a policy of excessive deregulation of the economy. The problem with excessive deregulation is that it does more harm than good. If the government have moved cautiously with the deregulation, it could have avoided the crisis.

    If for example, when the first stage boom had happened, the government should have adopted the policy of promoting new firms by encouraging competition, by providing the new firms with opportunities in the form of lower taxes, interest-free capital. Instead, the government followed the existence firms demand of more rebates, more deregulation which created a monopoly like the situation with restricting enter. The new firms would have competed with the older firms, and in the process, the poor performing firms would have thrown out of the market, and the best surviving firms could have produced efficiently and at a much lower price.

    The second lesson, therefore, is “The role of government is to promote competition and healthy environment for the firms to operate and not to practice Crony Capitalism in nexus with old firms”. Therefore, the policy of excessive deregulation along with creating a monopoly kind structure is a growth oriented move, but promoting and encouraging new firms through fair competition is a development oriented measure”.

    • The government promoted a policy of Land reforms which favoured firms and Businesses. Instead, the government must have come up with a policy which could have taken care of the poor and farmers. The government should have provided land at the fair market price along with the provision of forcing firms to undertake developmental activities like promoting primary health centres, secondary schools and another social sector initiative like computer training and skilling of rural youth who have lost their lands. This could have fastened the land reform process and makes it more acceptable to poor.

    The Third lesson, therefore, is “A balanced approach towards resource redistribution does more good as compare to a one-sided measure of promoting business welfare”. The governments must force the firms to provide essential services in the areas of the land takeover. Therefore, land acquisition along with welfare of the region is a development measure.

    • The last point is with respect to labour reforms. The flexibility of the labour market is the need of the hour. But it should be done keeping in mind the welfare of the labour. The government must do labour reforms which promote healthy employment along with bringing the labour in the social security net. The opening up of labour markets by killing unions and bargaining power of labour will only lead to labour exploitation and labour unrest and business loss. A better approach is to make labour market flexible for both employer and employee so that they can move out easily from one job to another. This can be done through proper contracts, well-functioning legal system, working social security net for labourers and skilling and training of labourers.

    Therefore, the fourth lesson “Labour Market reforms carried with the welfare of the labour is a development oriented measure”.

    The story in a nutshell, therefore, is “Growth is only a necessary condition and not a sufficient condition for promotion of well-being and raising the standard of living of the people”.

    ECONOMIC GROWTH ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT
    Economic growth refers to an increase over time in a country`s real output of goods and services (GNP) or real output per capita income. Economic development implies an upward movement of the entire social system in terms of income, savings and investment along with progressive changes in socioeconomic structure of country (institutional and technological changes)
    Economic Growth relates to a gradual increase in one of the components of Gross Domestic Product: consumption, government spending, investment, net exports. Development relates to the growth of human capital indexes, a decrease in inequality figures, and structural changes that improve the general population’s quality of life.
    It is a Quantitative concept. Increases in real GDP. It is a Qualitative concept. it includes HDI (Human Development Index), gender- related index (GDI), Human poverty index (HPI), infant mortality, literacy rate etc.
    It only Brings quantitative changes in the economy Its effect is that it Brings Qualitative changes in the economy.
    Economic growth is a more relevant metric for progress in developed countries. But it’s widely used in all countries because growth is a necessary condition for development.

    Growth is concerned with increase in the economy’s output

    Economic development is more relevant to measure progress and quality of life in developing nations. like India where there is rampant inequality in the distribution of wealth.

    Concerned with structural changes in the economy for example generally economic development is associated with fall in the share of Agriculture in the total GDP, while the increase in the share of manufacturing in the total GDP.

     

    By
    Himanshu Arora
    Doctoral Scholar in Economics & Senior Research Fellow, CDS, Jawaharlal Nehru University
  • B2B of the day: Oxytocin, Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

    Here are 2 Back2Basics collections from today’s news items

    B2B #1: From news- Govt. bans imports of hormone oxytocin

    Oxytocin

    1. Oxytocin is a powerful hormone that acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain
    2. It regulates social interaction and sexual reproduction, playing a role in behaviors from maternal-infant bonding and milk release to empathy, generosity, and orgasm
    3. It is also an antidote to depressive feelings
    4. The hormone plays a huge role in all pair bonding

    B2B #2: From News- 32 Indians to contribute in report on Climate Change

    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

    1. IPCC is a scientific and intergovernmental body under the auspices of the United Nations set up at the request of member governments
    2. It is dedicated to the task of providing the world with an objective, scientific view of climate change and its political and economic impacts
    3. It was first established in 1988 by two United Nations organizations, the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and later endorsed by the United Nations General Assembly
    4. Membership of the IPCC is open to all members of the WMO and UNEP
    5. The IPCC produces reports that support the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which is the main international treaty on climate change
    6. IPCC reports cover the scientific, technical and socio-economic information relevant to understanding the scientific basis of risk of human-induced climate change, its potential impacts and options for adaptation and mitigation
  • Health – Diseases

    N4S

    Diseases especially those in the news and relevant in the Indian context have been an important theme for prelims. It is important to note down the type of diseases, its symptoms, its carrier and efforts to eradicate it.

    Classification of diseases 

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    1.Communicable and Non-communicable 

    Basis Communicable Non-communicable
    Meaning The disease spread from person to another, they are ‘catching’ disease and can be spread through the air, water, etc. The disease which does not spread from one person to another through any mode.
    Cause Caused by pathogens and considered as highly infectious and vectors play the major role in spreading disease from one person to another. Caused due to allergy, illness, malnutrition or abnormalities in cell proliferation, changes in lifestyle, environment play a significant role.
    Infecting agent Bacteria and virus. No infectious agent.
    Example Tuberculosis, AIDS, Typhoid, Cholera, Malaria. Cancer, Rickets, Allergies, Kwashiorkor, Diabetes, Heart disease, etc.
    Inheritance This disease cannot be inherited from one generation to another. This disease can be inherited.
    Treatment Treated by conventional methods. Treated conservatively or surgically.
    Type Acute (develops quickly). Chronic (develops slowly and last for long-period).
    Precautions 1.Wear mask wherever needed.
    2.Wash your hands every time.
    3.Avoid sharing one’s belongings.
    4.Stay away from the person who is infected with any disease.
    1.Should go for regular body checkup.
    2.Maintain proper diet.
    3.By doing exercise daily.
    4.Take proper sleep and rest.

     

    2.Acute and Chronic Diseases

    Basis Acute Chronic
    Definition a disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course. a human health condition or disease that is persistent or otherwise long-lasting in its effects
    Appearance of Symptoms Sudden Usually Gradual
    Duration Short; a few days to a week or two Extended; usually six weeks or more, often months or years.
    Nature of Pain Starts suddenly as a reaction to an injury or something else. Develops gradually out of a habitual diet, posture or other condition. Continues beyond the expected period of recovery
    Examples Breaking a bone, burn, strep throat, flu, asthma attack, heartburn. Asthma, frequent migraines, consistent back pain, heart disease, kidney disease.

     

    Diseases in news

    I.Vector-borne diseases

    • Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that are transmitted by vectors. Vectors are living organisms that can transmit infectious diseases between humans or from animals to humans. Examples – mosquitoes, sandflies, triatomine bugs, blackflies, ticks, tsetse flies, mites, snails and lice.
    • Many of these vectors are bloodsucking insects, which ingest disease-producing microorganisms during a blood meal from an infected host (human or animal) and later inject it into a new host during their subsequent blood meal.
    • Mosquitoes are the best-known vectors.

    India has a National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) to counter vector-borne diseases.

    1.Filariasis

    Disease caused by roundworms with mosquitoes as the carrier.

    Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by an infection with roundworms.  It is also called as Elephantiasis or Hathipaon. India has a campaign – Hathipaon Mukt Bharat (Filaria Free India) for preventive medication.

    The national health policy had aimed at eliminating filariasis by 2015. The deadline was extended to 2017 and now has been shifted to 2020.

    Image result for Filariasis

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    Fila

     

    2. Malaria

    Malaria is caused by plasmodium protozoa and is most commonly transmitted by an infected female Anopheles Mosquito.
    The mosquito bite introduces the parasites from the mosquito’s saliva into a person’s blood. The parasites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce.

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    3.Kala-Azar or Black Fever or Dumdum Fever or Leishmaniasis

    Protozoan disease with Sandfly as the carrier.

    It is a slow progressing indigenous disease caused by a protozoan parasite of genus Leishmania. There is only one sandfly vector of Kala-azar in India.

    India has missed the 2017 deadline that Finance Minister had announced for the elimination of Kala Azar (black fever) in his Budget speech. In fact, endemic blocks have increased from 61 to 68 in 17 districts of Bihar and Jharkhand.

     

    Image result for kala azar

     

    4. Japanese Encephalitis

    Viral disease with Culex Mosquito as the carrier.

    The death of 63 children in Gorakhpur’s BRD Medical College is being attributed to JE.

    Image result for Japanese Encephalitis

     

    5.Kyasanur Forest Disease or Monkey Fever

    Viral disease with Tick as the carrier.

    Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) is a tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever endemic (constant presence of disease) in Karnataka State, India.

    Image result for kyasanur forest disease

     

    6. Zika

    Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus that was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys through a network that monitored yellow fever. The first large outbreak of disease caused by Zika infection was reported from the Island of Yap (Federated States of Micronesia) in 2007

    Complications – Microcephaly and Guillain-Barré syndrome

    Microcephaly is a condition where a baby’s head is much smaller than expected. It occurs among babies born to women who contracted the virus during pregnancy

    Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare condition in which the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system. For some, GBS can be quite serious, causing muscle weakness, sensory problems, pain and sometimes, paralysis.

     

    Image result for zika who

     

    Quick Reference for diseases transmitted by Mosquitos 

    Aedes – Chikungunya, Dengue fever, Lymphatic filariasis, Rift Valley fever, Yellow fever, Zika

    Anopheles – Malaria, Lymphatic filariasis

    Culex – Japanese encephalitis, Lymphatic filariasis, West Nile fever

     

    II.Nosocomial infection/hospital-acquired infection (HAI)

    • A nosocomial infection is contracted because of an infection or toxin that exists in a certain location, such as a hospital.
    • Bacteria, fungus, and viruses can cause HAIs. Bacteria alone cause about 90 percent of these cases.
    • One of the most common wards where HAIs occur is the intensive care unit (ICU), where doctors treat serious diseases. About 1 in 10 of the people admitted to a hospital will contract an HAI.

    Status in India

    • Despite being unacknowledged by the healthcare system in India, it is very much a reality
      according to a report published by the International Nosocomial Infection Control
      Consortium in 2015.
    • Another study published in the British Medical Journal indicates that that the burden of
      healthcare-associated infections in countries like India is high, with an estimated pooled
      prevalence of 15.5 per 100 patients, more than double the prevalence in Europe and the US.

    Causes

    ? Lack of proper Equipment: This includes both clinical and non-clinical equipment such as oxygen cylinders in the case of Gorakhpur Tragedy. This leads to inappropriate methods of treatments such as putting two infants in the same incubators. According to a CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General), there is 27.21% shortage of clinical equipment and 56.33% of non-clinical equipment.

    ? Poor knowledge and application of basic infection control measures: This includes absence of sanitization of the hospital premises such as visitor chair as well as strict rules regarding visitation especially in intensive care units (ICUs).

    ? Poor Infrastructure: Poor infrastructure, in general, includes proper beddings for patients, separate and disinfected lavatories for visitors and patients.

    ? Understaffing and Overcrowding: This is one of the root causes of non-compliance of the most basic hygiene standards by hospitals.

    ? Lack of Procedure: Lack of standard procedure for dealing with communicable disease patients increases the risk of HAI exponentially.

    ? Lack of knowledge of injection and blood transfusion safety: Lack of proper training for such procedures increases risk of contracting infection such as HIV and Hepatitis B. Moreover, with quackery highly prevalent in India (especially in rural areas), this becomes all the more relevant.

    ? Inadequate environmental hygienic and waste disposal mechanisms: There have been numerous cases of aborted foetuses and hospitals waste being thrown in nearby water bodies. Inadequate waste disposal not only increases chances of HAI but also puts the environment at risk.

    Absence of local and national guidelines: Absence of proper guidelines for hospital maintenance, accreditation and laws puts patients at risk.

     

    Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease usually caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB).
    It generally affects the lungs, but can also affect other parts of the body
    It is spread through the air when people who have active TB in their lungs cough, spit, speak, or sneeze
    Vaccine: BCG

     

    INDIA AND HEALTH

     

    Universal Immunization Programme(UIP)

    • Immunization Programme in India was introduced in 1978 as ‘Expanded Programme of Immunization’ (EPI) by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
    • In 1985, the programme was modified as ‘Universal Immunization Programme’ (UIP) to be implemented in a phased manner to cover all districts in the country by 1989-90.
    • Through UIP, the Government is providing vaccination free of cost against vaccine preventable diseases which include diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, polio, measles, severe form of childhood tuberculosis, hepatitis B, meningitis and pneumonia (Haemophilus influenza type B infections), Japanese encephalitis (JE) in JE endemic districts.
    • New vaccines have been introduced in the UIP/National Immunization Programme: Rotavirus vaccine, IPV, Pneumococcal Conjugate vaccine (PCV)  and Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine in UIP/National immunization programme.

     

    S No. Vaccine Preventable Disease(VPD) Vaccine
    1 Tuberculosis BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin)
    2 Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus DPT
    3 Poliomyelitis Oral Polio Vaccine(OPV) and Inactivated Polio Vaccine(IPV)
    4 Hepatitis B Hepatitis B Vaccine
    5 Measles Measles
    6 Tetanus Tetanus Toxoid(TT)
    7 Haemophilus influenzae type b Infection Hib containing Pentavalent vaccine (DPT+HepB+Hib) (In Selected States)
    8 Rotavirus Infections Rotavirus Vaccine
    9 Measles, Rubella Measles-Rubella(MR) Vaccine
    10 Japanese Encephalitis(JE) Adult JE Vaccine

     

    Mission Indradanush

    • To strengthen and re-energize the UIP and achieve full immunization coverage for all children and pregnant women at a rapid pace, the Government of India launched “Mission Indradhanush” in 2014.
    • The ultimate goal of Mission Indradhanush was to ensure full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to two years of age and pregnant women.
    • It aimed to fully immunize more than 90% of newborns by 2020 through innovative and planned approaches to reach all children.
    • Under Mission Indradhanush, all the vaccines provided under Universal Immunization Program were administered to children and pregnant women.

     

    Intensified Mission Indradanush(IMI)

    • To further intensify the immunization programme, Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) was launched in October 2017.
    • Through this programme, Government of India aims to reach each and every child up to two years of age and all those pregnant women who have been left uncovered under the routine immunisation programme/UIP.
    • The special drive will focus on improving immunisation coverage in select districts and cities to ensure full immunisation to more than 90% by December 2018.
    • The achievement of full immunisation under Mission Indradhanush to at least 90% coverage was to be achieved by 2020 earlier. With the launch of IMI, achievement of the target has now been advanced.

     

    National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP): For control of Dengue and elimination of Kala-azar and Lymphatic Filariasis.

    National Leprosy Eradication Programme: India has achieved the elimination of leprosy at national level in December 2005. Focus is now to achieve elimination of leprosy at district level.

     

    National Health Mission(NHM)

    • NHM is India’s flagship health sector programme to revitalize rural and urban health sectors by providing flexible finances to State Governments.
    • It comprises of 4 components namely the National Rural Health Mission, the National Urban Health Mission, Tertiary Care Programmes and Human Resources for Health and Medical Education.
    • It represents India’s endeavor to expand the focus of health services beyond Reproductive and Child Health, so as to address the double burden of Communicable and Noncommunicable diseases and also improve the infrastructure facilities at District and Sub-District Levels

     

    National Strategic Plan for Tuberculosis Elimination(2017-2025)

    • Aim: To achieve active case finding of TB to 100% by 2020 and complete elimination of TB by 2025.
    • Vision: TB-Free India with zero deaths, disease and poverty due to tuberculosis
    • Goal: To achieve a rapid decline in burden of TB, morbidity and mortality while working towards elimination of TB in India by 2025
    • Change of strategy: From the earlier strategy of self-reporting where few patients get themselves tested to Government itself reaching out to patients to detect more cases, both drug-sensitive and drug-resistant.
    • The four strategic pillars of the programme are: Detect-Treat-Prevent-Build(DTPB).
    • The development of this NSP has been a collaborative effort between all the stakeholders including national and state governments, development partners, civil society organizations, and private sector in India which was led by the Central TB Division, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

     

    National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination(2017-22)

    • The plan aims to achieve universal case detection and treatment services in malaria endemic districts to ensure 100% diagnosis of all suspected cases and full treatment of all confirmed cases.
    • Four components of the plan based on WHO Recommendations:
      • Diagnosis and case management
      • Surveillance and epidemic response
      • Prevention — integrated vector management
      • Cross cutting interventions which include communication, advocacy, R&D and other initiatives.
    • Categorisation of Districts:
      • The NSP divides the country into four categories, from 0 to 3. The first category, Zero, has 75 districts that have not reported any case of malaria for the last three years.
      • Category 1 has 448 districts, in which the annual parasite incidence (API, or the number of positive slides for the parasite in a year) is less than one per 1,000 population.
      • Category 2, which has 48 districts, the API is one and above, but less than two per 1,000 population.
      • Category 3 has 107 districts, reporting an API of two and above per 1,000 population.
    • The plan is to eliminate malaria (zero indigenous cases) by 2022 in all Category 1 and 2 districts. The remaining districts are to be brought under a pre-elimination and elimination programme.
    • The NSP also aims to maintain a malaria-free status for areas where transmission has been interrupted. It seeks to achieve universal case detection and treatment services in endemic districts to ensure 100% diagnosis of all suspected cases, and full treatment of all confirmed cases.

     

    E-health Initiatives of the Government

    Swasth E-Gurukul

    • An e-learning initiative of WHO, which acts as a single repository for training material for all disease programmes such as TB, AIDS, Leprosy, Malaria, Diabetes etc.

    NIKSHAY

    • An IT tool which facilitates monitoring of universal access to TB patients database.
    • Utilises SMS technology for communication with TB patients
    • Developed jointly by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and National Informatics Centre(NIC)

    Social Endeavour for Health and Telemedicine(SEHAT)

    • A pan-India initiative that aims to connect 60000 Common Service Centres(CSC) and provide healthcare services to citizens.
    • Through this, the people in rural areas can consult doctors online and also order generic drugs

    SUGAM

    • It enables online submission of applications, their tracking, processing and grant of approvals for drugs, clinical trials, medical devices vaccines etc.
    • Launched by Central Drugs Control Standard Organisation

    Kilkari

    • It delivers free, time-appropriate audio messages about pregnancy, childbirth and child care directly to families’ mobile phones via Interactive Voice Response (IVR).

    E-Aushadhi

    • It is a web based application which deals with the management of stocks of various drugs, sutures and surgical items required by different district drug warehouses of Rajasthan state

    Mother and Child Tracking System(MCTS)

    • It is a name based tracking system to ensure all pregnant women receive their antenatal care check-ups and children receive free immunization.
  • B2B of the day: India-Nordic Summit, Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM), Green Growth Equity Fund (GGEF)

    Here are 2 Back2Basics collections from today’s news items

    From news- Narendra Modi to visit Sweden, UK for bilateral talks and two multilateral summits

    India-Nordic Summit

    1. The first Indo-Nordic summit, focusing on business and investment, is scheduled to take place in Sweden in April 2018
    2. The summit is set to attract major investors for the government’s “Make in India” initiative

    Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM)

    1. CHOGM is a biennial summit meeting of the heads of government from all Commonwealth nations
    2. Every two years the meeting is held in a different member state and is chaired by that nation’s respective Prime Minister or President who becomes the Commonwealth Chair-in-Office until the next meeting
    3. The meetings originated with the leaders of the self-governing colonies of the British Empire
    4. The First Colonial Conference in 1887 was followed by periodic meetings, known as Imperial Conferences from 1907
    5. The majority of the important decisions are held not in the main meetings themselves, but at the informal ‘retreats’

    B2B #2: From News- NIIF, Everstone Group in talks to tie up for $500 million fund

    Green Growth Equity Fund (GGEF)

    1. GGEF, which will invest in renewable energy assets, is a joint venture between NIIF and the UK government
    2. It aims to leverage private sector investment from the City of London to invest in green infrastructure projects in India
    3. It shall have anchor commitments of GBP 120 million each from Government of India (through NIIF) and Government of UK
  • [Factoids] Tejas Aircraft

    Recently in news, because the Indian Air Force (IAF) for the first time planned to deploy the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas in its mega pan-India exercise called ‘Gaganshakti

    About: The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-seat, single-jet engine, multi-role light fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force and Navy

    Special Feature: The aircraft has a tail-less compound delta-wing configuration, which provides for high maneuverability

    Origins: It came from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme, which began in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fighters. LCA was officially named “Tejas” in 2003, meaning “Radiant” in Sanskrit by the then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee

  • Health – Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)

    Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is the ability of a microorganism (like bacteria, viruses, and some parasites) to stop an antimicrobial (such as antibiotics, antivirals and antimalarials) from working against it. As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections persist and may spread to others.

    Microorganisms that become resistant to most antimicrobials are often referred to as “superbugs”. It compromises medical procedures such as organ transplantation, cancer chemotherapy, major surgeries etc. making them very risky.

    Carbapenem Antibiotics – Refer to the line of last resort drug used to treat people with life-threatening infections.

     

    Causes of Antibiotic Resistance

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    Microorganisms in the news who have shown signs of resistance.

    Resistance in Klebsiella pneumoniae – common intestinal bacteria that can cause life-threatening infections – to a last resort treatment (carbapenem antibiotics) has spread to all regions of the world. K. pneumoniae is a major cause of hospital-acquired infections such as pneumonia, bloodstream infections, and infections in newborns and intensive-care unit patients.

    Resistance in E. coli to one of the most widely used medicines for the treatment of urinary tract infections (fluoroquinolone antibiotics) is very widespread. There are countries in many parts of the world where this treatment is now ineffective in more than half of patients.

    Treatment failure to the last resort of medicine for gonorrhoea.

    Colistin is the last resort treatment for life-threatening infections caused by Enterobacteriaceae which are resistant to carbapenems. Resistance to colistin has recently been detected in several countries and regions, making infections caused by such bacteria untreatable.

    Besides these – Malaria, TB, HIV, etc all have shown signs of developing resistance.

     

    International Initiatives

    • ‘One Health’ approach: to designing and implementing programmes, policies, legislation and research in which multiple sectors communicate and work together to achieve better public health outcomes against the food safety, the control of zoonoses (diseases that can spread between animals and humans, such as flu, rabies), antimicrobial resistance etc.
    • In 2015, the WHO released a Global Action Plan on AMR (GAP-AMR) urging member countries to develop national action plans by May 2017.
    • The Global Antimicrobial Resistance Surveillance System
    • Interagency Coordination Group on AMR (IACG)
    • World Antibiotic Awareness Week.

     

    Initiatives by India 

    1. India recently has launched National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance.

    Six strategic priorities have been identified under the NAP-AMR
    1. Enhancing awareness among masses and strict adulteration laws.
    2. Strengthen knowledge and evidence through surveillance.
    3. Optimize the use of anti-microbial agents.
    4. Reducing infections
    5. Promote investments, research, and innovations.
    6. Strengthen leadership on AMR through international collaborations

    2. A National Policy for containment of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in the country was formulated in the year 2011 and has been widely disseminated. The said policy envisages enforcement and enhancement of regulatory provisions for use of antibiotics for humans as also for veterinary use.

    3. The Drugs and Cosmetic Rule, 1945 were amended in 2013 to incorporate a new Schedule H1 under the said rules containing 46 drugs which include IIIrd and IVth generation antibiotics, anti TB drugs and certain habit forming drugs for having strict control over the sale of these drugs.

    4. FSSAI has set certain guidelines limiting the antibiotics in food products such as fish and honey.

    5. Red Line Campaign on Antibiotics 2016, was launched to create awareness regarding rational usage and limiting the practice of self-medication of antibiotics among the general public.

    6. National Health Policy 2017 envisions a holistic framework against AMR.

  • [Static Revision] National Income Determination, GDP, GNP, NDP, NNP, Personal Income

    National Income Accounting in India

    National income of a country can be defined as the total market value of goods and services produced in the economy in a year.

    The three-important measure of calculating National Income of a country are:

    • The sum of the value of all final goods and services produced.
    • The sum of all incomes accruing to factors of production, i.e., Rent, Interest, Profit and Wages.
    • The sum of consumer’s expenditure, net investment, and government expenditure on goods and services.

    Circular Flow of Income in a Three Sector Economy

    • The modern economy is a monetary economy. Money changes hand from one sector to another.
    • The Household sector supplies their services like labour, land, Capital and entrepreneurial abilities to firms and receives payments in return in terms of money.
    • In the first stage of the model, the Household sector provides their services of labour, land, capital and entrepreneurial skills to the Business firms.
    • In the second stage, the Business firms pay back in monetary terms to the Household sector in the form of Wages, Rent, Interest and Profits.
    • In the third stage, the money received by household is spent on the goods and services produced by the firms in the form of consumption expenditure. At the same time, the Firms provides their goods and services to the Household in return for the money.
    • Thus, we see, that money flows from business firms to households as payments for a factor of production (Labour, Land, Rent and Entrepreneurial skills), and then it flows from Household to firms when Household purchased goods and services produced by the firms. This money flow is called circular flow of income.

    Saving and Investment in the Circular Flow

    • Along with consumption, the household also saves part of their money.
    • When Household saves, their expenditure on purchase of goods and services decline. The decline in the purchase will result in a decline in money received by firms. This will result in less money flow to the household as the firms will reduce hiring and production operations. Thus, saving act as a leakage from the economic system.
    • But the important question to ask is, where will savings go in the economy?
    • The savings in the economy does not lead to any reduction in aggregate spending and income as the savings flows back into the economic system through Financial Markets (Banks, Stock markets, insurance etc.)
    • From Financial Markets, the savings flows back to the Business firms who borrow them and invest it into new forms of investments.
    • Thus, the saving which is a leakage in the system also flows back into the system through investment by a firm which acts as injections.

    Government Sector in the Circular Flow

    • Government affects the economy in a number of ways. The main components of government intervention are in the form of taxes, spending and borrowings.
    • Government purchase goods and services just as household and firms do.
    • Government financed its expenditure through taxes and borrowings.
    • The money flow from Household and firms to the government is in the form of taxes.
    • The other form of money flow from Household and firms to government is in the form of Borrowings through financial markets.
    • The Government pay back to household and firms in the form of provision of public goods like health, education, Policing, National Defence etc.

    National Income and National Product

    Gross National Product Gross Domestic Product
    GNP is the total market value of all final goods and services produced in a year in a country. GDP is the value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents as well as non-residents in the domestic territory of the country but does not includes Net Factor Income from Abroad.
    The important thing to remember about GNP is that it is measured at market prices/value. The important point to remember is whatever is produced in India, whether by an Indian or foreign national is part of Indian GDP.
    To calculate GNP, only the final goods and services produced in an economy during in a given year must be counted. No intermediate goods and services should be included in GNP. The key difference between GNP and GDP is the exclusion of Net Factor Income Abroad from GDP.
    GNP includes only those goods and services that are produced by the residents of India whether working in India or Abroad. GDPMP = GNPMP – Net Factor Income from Abroad.
    Net Factor Income from Abroad:

    The sum of factor incomes like rent, wages, interest and profits generated within the domestic country is called domestic factor income.

    The domestic factor income includes both incomes earned by residents as well as non-residents/foreigners working in India.

    At the same time, Indian go abroad to work and earn wages, salaries, profits and rents.

    Now the Net Factor income abroad= the difference between factor income received by the residents of India working abroad and the factor income paid to the foreign residents for working in India.

    GNP includes Net Factor Income Abroad

    GDP = Consumption + Gross Private Investment + Government Expenditure + Net Exports

    Net Exports= Exports – Imports.

    If we want to calculate Net Domestic Product from the GDP, then we just have to minus depreciation from the Gross Private Investment.

    NDP= Consumption + Net Private Investment + Government Expenditure + Net Exports.

    Where, Net Private Investment= Gross Private Investment – Depreciation.

    GNP= Consumption + Gross Private Investment + Government Expenditure + Net Exports + Net Factor Income from Abroad.

    Net National Product or National Income

    • In the production of GNP of a year, a country uses some fixed assets or capital goods like Machinery, Equipments and technology etc.
    • The capital goods like machinery, building and equipment’s undergo regular wear and tear during the production process, which reduces their value. This fall in the value of capital assets due to regular wear and tear is called depreciation.
    • When the Depreciation is deducted from the Gross National Product, then we get Net National Product.
    • It simply means to include all market value of goods and services produced in a year after deducting depreciation.
    • NNPMP = GNP- Depreciation.

    National Income at Factor Cost

    • National Income from Factor Cost is also called National Income of a country.
    • National Income means the sum of all incomes earned by the citizens in the form of Rent, Wages, Interest and Profits.
    • The difference between National Income at Factor Cost and National Income at Market Price (NNPMP) arises from the fact that indirect taxes and subsidies cause the market price to be different from the factor income received by the citizens.
    • Example, A mobile handset of Rs10,000 purchased by you includes a GST of 12%. In this case, while the market price of RS 10,000 includes the GST. The factor of production used to produce mobile handset will only get RS 8800. Thus, the difference between market price and factor cost is the tax.
    • Similarly, a subsidy results in the market price of a product to be less than the factor cost.
    • Therefore, while calculating National Income, we must deduct indirect taxes and add subsidies into Net National Product at Market Price.
    • NNPFC = NNPMP – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies.

    Personal Income

    • Personal Income includes the sum of all incomes actually received by all the individuals or households during a given year.
    • The individual pays income taxes, firms pay corporate taxes, individual also contribute towards social securities in the form of Cess etc., and some individuals receive social security benefits (transfer payments) like pension, unemployment allowances from the government.
    • In order to move from National Income to Personal Income of individuals and firms, we must deduct all forms of direct taxes and social security contribution by the individuals and must add transfer payment received by the individuals.
    • The basic idea here is to subtract all those income from National Income that is earned by an individual but has not been received like taxes and add all those incomes which are received by the individuals but has not been earned like Old age Pensions.
    • Personal Income= National Income – (Undistributed Corporate Profits+ Corporate Taxes + Social Security Contribution) + (Transfer Payments).
    GNP GDP NNPMP NNPFC Personal Income
    GNPMP= Consumption + Gross Private Investment + Government Expenditure + Net Exports + Net Factor Income from Abroad. GDPMP = GNPMP – Net Factor Income from Abroad. NNPMP = GNPMP – Depreciation. NNPFC = NNPMP – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies. Personal Income= National Income (NNPFC) – (Undistributed Corporate Profits+ Corporate Taxes + Social Security Contribution) + (Transfer Payments).

     

    By
    Himanshu Arora
    Doctoral Scholar in Economics & Senior Research Fellow, CDS, Jawaharlal Nehru University

     

  • B2B of the day: Competition Commission of India (CCI), UN Disarmament Commission (UNDC), International Press Institute

    Here are 3 Back2Basics collections from today’s news items

    B2B #1: From News- Cabinet approves downsizing of Competition Commission of India

    Competition Commission of India (CCI)

    1. Competition Commission of India is a statutory body of the Government of India
    2. It is responsible for enforcing The Competition Act, 2002 throughout India and to prevent activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India
    3. The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control and Merger and acquisition), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India
    4. It is the duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India
    5. CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members (now 4) appointed by the Central Government

    B2B #2: From News- Opposed to ‘weaponisation’ of outer space: India to UN

    UN Disarmament Commission (UNDC)

    1. In 1952, the UN General Assembly created the United Nations Disarmament Commission (UNDC) under the Security Council
    2. The Disarmament Commission was re-established at the first Special Session of the General Assembly devoted to Disarmament in 1978 to succeed an earlier Disarmament Commission, which ceased to convene after 1965
    3. It was created as a deliberative body, with the function of considering and making recommendations on various issues in the field of disarmament and of following up on the relevant decisions and recommendations of the special session
    4. It has a mandate to prepare proposals for a treaty for the regulation, limitation and balanced reduction of all armed forces and all armaments, including the elimination of all weapons of mass destruction
    5. It reports annually to the General Assembly
    6. Since 1978, the Disarmament Commission has dealt with numerous disarmament-related questions, both nuclear and conventional

    B2B #3: From News- International Press Institute terms contentious fake news guidlines ‘misguided policy’

    International Press Institute

    1. International Press Institute (IPI) is a global organization dedicated to the promotion and protection of press freedom and the improvement of journalism practices
    2. Founded in October 1950, the IPI has members in over 120 countries
    3. IPI’s membership is made up of editors and media executives working for some of the world’s most respected media outlets
    4. IPI is a member of the International Freedom of Expression Exchange, a global network of non-governmental organizations that monitors press freedom and free expression violations worldwide
    5. IPI enjoys consultative status with the UN, UNESCO and the Council of Europe
    6. Each year, IPI publishes an authoritative report on media violations around the world: The World Press Freedom Review
  • [Factoids] Ashgabat Agreement

    Recently in news, because India has been admitted to Agreement

    What? Ashgabat Agreement is an international transport and transit corridor facilitating transportation of goods between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.

    Aim: The transit agreement provides for a transit corridor across Central Asia and the Middle East through the continuous landmass between Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan and Iran before reaching the Persian Gulf and into Oman

    Objective: The objective of this agreement is to enhance connectivity within Eurasian region and synchronize it with other transport corridors within that region including the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC)

  • B2B of the day:Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), National Institutional Ranking Framework

    Here are 2 Back2Basics collections from today’s news items

    B2B #1: From news- HRD Ministry forms panel to examine CBSE’s exam conduct process

    Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

    1. CBSE is a national level board of education in India for public and private schools, controlled and managed by Union Government of India
    2. CBSE affiliates all Kendriya Vidyalayas, all Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, private schools and most of the schools approved by central government of India
    3. CBSE has asked all schools affiliated to follow only NCERT curriculum
    4. CBSE conducts the final examinations for Class 10 and Class 12 every year
    5. Currently, Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducts Joint Engineering Entrance (JEE) Exam, National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET), Central Teacher Eligibility Test (twice a year) UGC’s National Eligibility Test (twice a year) and the entrance test for Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas

    B2B #2: From News- IISc tops HRD Ministry’s rankings of national institutes for 2018

    National Institutional Ranking Framework

    1. NIRF is a methodology adopted by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Government of India, to rank institutions of higher education in India
    2. This framework outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country
    3. These include overall rankings across disciplines and as well as category-wise ranking for engineering, pharmacy, medical, management, architecture, law, university, and colleges
    4. The parameters broadly cover “Teaching, Learning and Resources,” “Research and Professional Practices,” “Graduation Outcomes,” “Outreach and Inclusivity,” and “Perception”
  • [Factoids] Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)

    Recently in News, because India Has Been Re-Elected To The UN’s Principal Organ, the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) for Another Three-Year Term

    ObjectiveECOSOC is the United Nations’ central platform for reflection, debate, and innovative thinking on sustainable development

    MembersThe Council’s 54 member Governments are elected by the General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms

    Seats on the Council are allotted based on geographical representation with fourteen allocated to the African States, eleven to the Asian States, six to the Eastern European States, ten to Latin American and Caribbean States, and thirteen to Western European and other States

    HeadquartersNew York

    Year FoundedECOSOC is one of the six main organs of the United Nations established by the UN Charter in 1945

  • B2B of the day: Press Council of India, News Broadcasters Association, Provisioning

    Here are 2 Back2Basics collections from today’s news items

    B2B #1: From news- In name of fake news, Government frames rules to blacklist journalists

    Press Council of India

    1. The Press Council is a statutory, quasi-judicial body which acts as a watchdog of the press
    2. It adjudicates the complaints against and by the press for violation of ethics and for violation of the freedom of the press respectively
    3. It was first set up on 4 July 1964 by the Parliament to regulate the press in India
    4. The basis at that time was the Press Council Act, 1965 which resulted from the recommendations of the First Press Commission of India (1952-1999)
    5. After 2017, the Council functions under the Press Council Act 1978 which arose from the recommendations of the Second Press Commission of India (1978)
    6. The Press Council is headed by a Chairman: usually, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India
    7. It consists of a Chairman and 28 other members. Of the 28 members, 13 represent the working journalists

    News Broadcasters Association

    1. The News Broadcasters Association is a private association of different current affairs and news television broadcasters in India
    2. It was established by leading Indian news broadcasters in October 2008
    3. The association was set up to deal with ethical, operational, regulatory, technical and legal issues affecting news and current-affairs channels

     

    B2B #2: From News- RBI lets banks spread out provisioning for bond market losses over 4 quarters

    Provisioning

    1. When a loan is not being repaid, the Bank has to reconstitute this money from its other sources like Profit
    2. Setting aside of money from Profits to compensate a probable loss caused on lending a loan is called Provisioning
    3. Provisioning is done to cover the risk
    4. There are various percentages of Provisioning to the value of loan based on the duration the account has been out of order
    5. If an account stays non-performing for a prolonged period of time, the account is eventually written off and the account is closed
    6. The amount set aside as the provisioned money is used to close the account
  • B2B of the day: Government securities, Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

    Here are 2 Back2Basics collections from today’s news items

    B2B #1: From news- FBIL will now do the valuation of G-Secs

    Government securities

    1. A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments
    2. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation
    3. Such securities are short-term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long-term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with the original maturity of one year or more)
    4. In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs)
    5. G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments

    B2B #2: From News- Central Vigilance Commission wants to keep an eye on private banks

    Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

    1. CVC is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption
    2. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority
    3. It is charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work
    4. The CVC is not an investigating agency. The only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government.
    5. The Commission shall consist of:
    • A Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson;
    • Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members

    6. The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member)

  • [CSAT Preparation] Maths and Logical reasoning: Previous years paper analysis & key takeaways

    The numerical ability and logical reasoning questions in CSAT, Paper II for the year 2017 were a good mix of easy and tough questions. There were certain questions which required candidate to know complex mathematical concepts while at the same time there were certain questions which were pretty easy

    We have tried to use simple numerical methods and logic to solve most questions except in cases where complex mathematics was the only way out but luckily such questions were very few in number. The numerical ability and logical reasoning question have followed the same trend over the years with good number of easy and medium questions interspersed with tough nuts

    Number system, Time-Speed-Distance, Work and Average have been recurring themes over the years and it shall be beneficial for the candidates to solve the questions from related chapters of Class IX and Class X.  It shall also come handy to solve all the previous year CSAT Paper II questions as sometimes the concept remains the same, only the presentation changes in questions being asked

    So here are the solutions for the numerical ability and logical reasoning questions for the year 2017:

    1. Certain 3-digit numbers following characteristics:
    2. All the three digits are different.
    3. The number is divisible by 7.
    4. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.

    How many such 3-digit numbers are there?

    (a) 2

    (b) 4

    (c) 6

    (d) 8

    Solution:

    Let the number be 100x + 10y + z, where x, y and z are single digit numbers and x > 0.

    Now the reverse number shall be 100z + 10 y + x. Now it is given that both of them are divisible by 7 and hence their difference shall also be divisible by 7.

    Thus  (100x + 10y + z) – (100z + 10 y + x) = 7m, where m is an integer.

    This implies that 99(x – z) = 7m.

    Now since 99 is not divisible by 7 therefore x-z should be divisible by 7. Again since x and z are single digit numbers their difference which is divisible by 7 would actually be 7 only, because for no value of x or z shall x-z be equal to 14 or 21 or 28 etc.

    Thus we have x – z = 7 and the values that x and z can take are (9,2) and (8, 1)

    Thus the numbers are of the form 1_8 and 2_9.

    Now in 1_8, number at unit’s place is 8 so we should get a carry-over of 2 from the division of number formed by the digits at hundred’s and ten’s place to make the number become completely divisible by 7 (we want to make it 28 which is divisible by 7). Thus the ten’s digit should be 6 and number shall be 168. The reverse number 861 is also divisible by 7. Thus two of our required numbers are 168 and 861.

    Now in 2_9, number at unit’s place is 9 so we should get a carry-over of 4 from the division of number formed by the digits at hundred’s and ten’s place to make the number become completely divisible by 7 (we want to make it 49 which is divisible by 7). Thus the ten’s digit should be 5 and number shall be 259. The reverse number 952 is also divisible by 7. Thus other two of our numbers are 259 an 952.

    Thus there are four numbers satisfying all three conditions and hence the answer is

    (b) 4

    1. Examine the following statements:
    2. All colours are pleasant.
    3. Some colours are pleasant.
    4. No colour is pleasant.
    5. Some colours are not pleasant.

    Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?

    (a) 1 and 2 are true.

    (b) 3 is true.

    (c) 2 is false.

    (d) 1 is false.

    Solution:

    It is given that statement 4 is true i.e. some colours are not pleasant. Now if some colour are pleasant then its corollary is that some of them are pleasant.

    Now let us evaluate rest of the three statements:

    1. All colours are pleasant….This is in clear contravention to statement 4 so Statement 1 is false.
    2. Some colours are pleasant….Yes this is true as we found out in the corollary of statement 4.
    3. No colour is pleasant…..No this is false as we found out in the corollary of statement 4.

    Thus we know that statement 1 is false, 2 is true and 3 is false.

    And hence answer choice is (d).

    (d) 1 is false.

    1. How many numbers arc there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?

    (a) 64

    (b) 80

    (c) 90

    (d) 104

    Solution:

    We have to find out number between 99 and 1000 i.e. all three digit numbers such that unit’s digit is 8. Nothing has been said of digits at hundred’s or ten’s place.

    Now number of digits that can occupy hundred’s place = 9 (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9) [0 not included as it will make the number a two digit number]

    Number of digits that can occupy ten’s place = 10 (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9) [0 included as well]

    Now number of digits that can occupy one’s place = 1 (only 8 can occupy this position as stated in the question)

    Therefore total numbers between 99 and 1000 where unit’s place is occupied by 8  = 9 × 10 ×1 = 90.

    Thus the answer option is

    (c) 90

    1. If for a sample data

    Mean < Median < Mode

    then the distribution is

    (a) symmetric

    (b) skewed to the right

    (c) neither symmetric nor skewed

    (d) skewed to the left

    Solution:

    A direct question from basic statistics, For a distribution skewed to the left Mean < Median < Mode. Thus the answer is:

    (d) skewed to the left

    1. The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again?

    (a) 42

    (b) 38

    (c) 25

    (d) 16

    Solution:

    Last year the age was square of a number therefore it may have been 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49 etc.

    Now let us check in which of the above cases the age next year i.e. after 2 years shall be a cube. After 2  years the ages shall be 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, 38, 51 etc. In only one case, that is 64, the age shall be cube of a number. Thus we get the combination of ages we are looking for. Last year age was 25 (a square), this year age is 26 and next year age shall be 27 (a cube).

    Now his age will be cube of number again when he is 64. So he must wait for 64 – 26 = 38 years. Thus the answer is option (b).

    (b) 38

    1. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?

    (a) 3 : 1 : 1

    (b) 3 : 2 : 4

    (c) 4 : 3 : 4

    (d) 3 : 1 : 4

    Solution:

    They will share earnings in the ratio of the amount of work they do. Now P and Q together can work four times as fast as R which means in the time taken by R to finish one unit of work, P and Q together shall finish 4 units of work.

    Let us assume there are a total of 15 units of work to be finished. When the work is finished, P and Q together would have finished 12 units (4/5th of 15 units) and R would have finished 3 units. Out of these 12 units, since P is 3 times more efficient, P would have finished 9 units (3/4th of 12 units) of work. Therefore the units of work done by P, Q and R is respectively 9 : 3 : 3. Therefore their earnings shall be shared in the same ratio of  9 : 3 : 3 i.e. 3 : 1 : 1. Therefore, answer shall be option (a):

    (a) 3 : 1 : 1

    [Note: If A can work x times faster than B, then A’s share of work shall be x/(x+1)th part of the total work]

    1. Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F:
    2. The number of males equals that of females.
    3. A and E are sons of F.
    4. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
    5. B is the son of A.
    6. There is only one married couple in the family at present.

    Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

    (a) A, B and C are all females.

    (b) A is the husband of D.

    (c) E and F are children of D.

    (d) D is the daughter of F.

    Solution:

    Number of males = 3 and Number of females = 3.

    A and E are males/sons of F (who can be male/female)

    B is son of A. This means A, B and E are the males in the family and C, D and F are females.

                                                 F (female)

     

                             A (son/male) E (son/male)

     

     

                              B (son/male)

    Now it is given that there is only one married couple and D is mother of 2 (a boy and a girl). D is married to either A or E or B. D cannot be married to B because then with 2 children (of which one is son) number of males shall become 4 and it shall violate given condition. D cannot be married to E because then again number of males in family would increase to 4 and that shall violate given condition. That means D is married to A and has B as son, C as daughter and A as husband. So out of the options given, only option (b) can be inferred. Thus the answer is

    (b) A is the husband of D.

    1. A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?

    (a) 17

    (b) 16

    (c) 13

    (d) 11

    Solution:

    We have to find out minimum number of balls that should be drawn to be sure to get at least one ball of each of the three colours. Now let us consider the worst case scenario:

    If we start drawing balls and all the balls turn out to be green, then all balls turn out to be white. So we have drawn 8 + 7 = 15 balls by now. Now if we draw one more ball it will definitely be red and we would have at least one ball of each colour with us. So total balls drawn = 15 + 1 = 16. Thus the answer is option (b).

    (b) 16

    [Note : It is possible that first ball we draw is green, second we draw is white and third we draw is red i.e. we have three draws and three balls, one each of different colour, has been picked up as required. But in this case it is luck that it happened in three picks. But the question is that we have to be sure that we get at least one ball of each colour out and for that we have to consider the worst case scenario as explained above.]

    1. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?

    (a) 3

    (b) 6

    (c) 12

    (d) 24

    Solution:

    Instead of using permutation and combination let us try to count the arrangements as the number of boys and girls is less.

    Let the seats be numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4 and boys and girls be represented as B1, B2, G1 and G2.

    First of all let us fix the seat of G1 at seat no 1 and count the arrangements we need:

     

    1 2 3 4
    G1 B1 G2 B2
    G1 B1 B2 G2
    G1 B2 G2 B1
    G1 B2 B1 G2

    So total arrangement = 4. Similarly let us place G1 at seat 2, 3 and 4 in turn and count the arrangements:

     

    1 2 3 4
    B1 G1 B2 G2
    B2 G1 B1 G2

    Number of arrangement = 2

     

    1 2 3 4
    G2 B1 G1 B2
    G2 B2 G1 B1

    Number of arrangement = 2

     

     

    1 2 3 4
    B1 G2 B2 G1
    G2 B1 B2 G1
    B2 G2 B1 G1
    G2 B2 B1 G1

    Number of arrangement = 4

    Thus the total number of arrangements = 4 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 12

    Hence the answer is option (c):

    (c) 12

    1. The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?

    (a) 8

    (b) 16

    (c) 24

    (d) 36

    Solution:

    The question involves a bit of imagery on the part of the candidates and a careful counting. If the top and bottom levels of smaller cubes (all of which shall have at least one painted face) are removed, we shall be left with 32 cubes. Out of these 32 cubes, which form the remaining two levels, the cubes on the outer periphery shall have one painted face. At each level there shall be 12 such cubes that will have one face painted. Thus removing these 12 cubes from each of the remaining levels we are left with 32 – 12 – 12 = 8 cubes who would not have any painted face. Therefore the answer is option (a):

    (a) 8

    1. Consider the following:

    A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North.

    B is not neighbour of G.

    F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E.

    G is not at the extreme end.

    A is sixth to the left of E.

    H is sixth to the right of C.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above?

    (a) C is to the immediate left of A.

    (b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F.

    (c) G is to the immediate right of D.

    (d) A and E are at the extreme ends.

    Solution:

    Let us assume we are facing them and then imagine the arrangement:

    A is sixth to the left of E, which means there are 5 others between A and E.

    A E

    Or

    A E

     

    H is sixth to the right of C, which means there are 5 others between H and C.

    C H

    Or

    C H

    If we combine above arrangements, we have following possibilities:

    C A H E

    Or

    A C E H

    Since F is neighbor of E, we can have only of the above arrangements as the possibility and which is as under:

    A C F E H

    Putting G to the immediate right of F we get:

    A C G F E H

    B is not neighbour of G, which means final position is as under:

    A C B D G F E H

    Now let us check the options:

    (a) C is to the immediate left of A…..ANSWER

    (b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F…..NO

    (c) G is to the immediate right of D……NO

    (d) A and E are at the extreme ends…..NO

    1. In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates `white’ is

    (a) 2

    (b) 4

    (c) 5

    (d) 8

    Solution:

    Let us solve this question using elimination. 256 means red colour chalk (thus white is none of 2 or 5 or 6). 589 means ‘green colour flower’ (thus white is none of 5, 8 or 9). Thus white is none of 2, 5, 6, 8 or 9 and hence we get only one option (b) which can represent white. Thus answer is option (b).

    (b) 4

    1. The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4 : 3. The average of six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day?

    (a) 0.60 inch

    (b) 0.70 inch

    (c) 0.80 inch

    (d) 0.90 inch

    Solution:

    The average rainfall in first four days = 0.40 inch.

    Thus total rainfall in first four days = 4 × 0.40 = 1.6 inch……(1)

    The average rainfall six days = 0.50 inch.

    Thus total rainfall in six days = 6 × 0.50 = 3.0 inch……………(2)

    Subtracting (1) from (2) we get total rainfall in fifth and sixth day = 3.0 – 1.6 = 1.4 inch….(3)

    Now the rainfall on fifth and sixth day was in the ratio 4 : 3. Let us say rainfall on fifth day = 4x inch and that on sixth day = 3x inch. Total rainfall = 4x + 3x = 7x = 1.4 inch [as found out in (3)].

    Hence x = 0.2 inch and rainfall on fifth day = 4x = 4 × 0.2 = 0.8 inch. Thus answer is option (c).

    (c) 0.80 inch

    Directions for the following 3 (three) items : consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

    A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in the same order) who participated in a conference. Each one of them is specialized in a different subject, viz., Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics and Statistics (not necessarily in the same order). Further

    1. Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in Geography
    2. Lecturer D is from Shillong
    3. Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology
    4. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics
    5. Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad
    6. Lecturer F who is specialized in Commerce belongs to Srinagar
    7. Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to Chennai

    Let us solve the case and fill up what is clearly given in the table first:

    Lecturer              City Specialization

                                 Kanpur Geography

          D              Shillong

          C              Delhi        Sociology

          F               Srinagar   Commerce

          G              Chennai    Statistics

    Now we have made us of all statements in above table except the following two:

    1. Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics
    2. Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to Hyderabad

    Now if we combine our table and above two statements we can see that B does not specialize in History and Mathematics (as is given) or Sociology, Commerce or Statistics (they are specializations of C, F and G) or Economics (A specializes in it). Thus only specialization left for B is Geography. Our table now looks as under:

    Lecturer              City Specialization

          B              Kanpur    Geography

          D              Shillong

          C              Delhi        Sociology

          F               Srinagar   Commerce

          G              Chennai    Statistics

    Now A specializes in Economics but does not belong to Hyderabad (given) or Kanpur, Shillong, Delhi, Srinagar, Chennai (they are cities of B, D, C, F and G). Thus A must belong to Mumbai. So now our table is as under:

    Lecturer              City Specialization

          B              Kanpur    Geography

          D              Shillong

          C              Delhi        Sociology

          F               Srinagar   Commerce

          G              Chennai    Statistics

          A               Mumbai  Economics

    Now only city of Hyderabad is left out and thus E must belong to it. Thus our table now looks like this:

    Lecturer              City Specialization

          B              Kanpur    Geography

          D              Shillong      

          C              Delhi        Sociology

          F               Srinagar   Commerce

          G              Chennai    Statistics

          A              Mumbai    Economics

          E             Hyderabad

    Now we can answer the questions:

    1. Who is specialized in Geography?

    (a) B

    (b) D

    (c) E

    (d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

    Solution:

    (a) B

    1. To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?

    (a) Hyderabad

    (b) Mumbai

    (c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai

    (d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

    Solution:

    (b) Mumbai

    1. Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?

    (a) B

    (b) E

    (c) Neither B nor E

    (d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

    Solution:

    (b) E

    1. In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum numb, of subjects?

    (a) A

    (b) B

    (c) D

    (d) E

    Solution:

    A – Hindi, English

    B – Hindi, English, Geography, History, French

    C – English, Geography

    D – Mathematics, Hindi

    E – History, French  

    Thus the answer is option (b):

    (b) B

    1. A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?

    (a) 9

    (b) 27

    (c) 36

    (d) 45

    Solution:

    Since we want maximum remainder, we shall try to find a 2 digit number which is as high as possible and try to divide it by its reverse and check the remainder:

    Let us begin with 99. The reverse shall be 99 as well. When 99 is divided by 99, the remainder is 0.

    Take 98. Reverse is 89 and remainder shall be 9.

    Take 97. Reverse is 79 and remainder shall be 18.

    Take 96. Reverse is 69 and remainder shall be 27.

    Take 95. Reverse is 59 and remainder shall be 36.

    Take 94. Reverse is 49. When 94 is divided by 49, the remainder is 45, which is the largest value given in the options and hence our answer. Thus the answer is

    (d) 45

    1. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3: 2. However, each saves Rs. 6,000 per month. What is their total monthly income?

    (a) Rs. 28,000

    (b) Rs. 42,000

    (c) Rs. 56,000

    (d) Rs. 84,000

    Solution:

    Let their incomes be 4x and 3x respectively and their savings be 3y and 2y respectively.

    Thus savings of X and Y are respectively 4x – 3y and 3x – 2y.

    Since both have same savings of Rs. 6000 per month that means : 4x – 3y = 3x – 2y, which means x = y.

    Now saving of  X = 4x-3y = 4x – 3x = x = Rs. 6000 (given).

    Thus their total monthly income = 4x + 3x = 7 = Rs 42,000. Thus answer is option (b):

    (b) Rs. 42,000

    1. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How many meters is the fly from the ceiling?

    (a) 4

    (b) 6

    (c) 12

    (d) 15

    Solution:

    If the candidates can again use a bit of imagination they will realize that question is basically about finding the height of a cuboid whose length, breadth and the length of the diagonal joining opposite corners across the cuboid is given. The fly and point P are at the opposite corners across the cuboid in this case. We know that if a, b and c are length, breadth and height of a cuboid then the length of the diagonal, d, joining the opposite corners across the cuboid is equal to a²+b²+c² .

    In this case, a = 8 m, b = 1 m, d = 9 m. Putting these values in above formula we get, c = 4 m. Thus the fly is 4 meters away from the ceiling. Therefore the answer is:

    (a) 4

    Directions for the following 3 (three) items : Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

    Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, D to H, G to C, E to C and H to G. Two-way passages are between A and E, G and B, F and D, and E and D.

    Let us show the ways through arrows and draw the figure:

                                          C A   

     

                                          E G

     

                                          B F

     

                                          D H   

    1.   While travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed through?

    (a) G

    (b) E

    (c) B

    (d) F

    Solution:

    Now while travelling from C to H, we can have the following paths:

                                                                   D H

    C                        A E

                                                                   G B F D H

     

    We can see that of the given options E must be passed through while travelling from C to H and therefore answer is option (b):

    (b) E

    1. In how many different ways can a train navel from F to A without passing through any station more than once?

    (a) 1

    (b) 2

    (c) 3

    (d) 4                 

    Solution:                                              G            C A

                                                                                C A

                                                                  E A

                              F D

                                                                   H G C A

     

    Thus there are four distinct paths to reach C from F without passing through any station twice and therefore the answer is option (d):

    (d) 4

    1. If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?

    (a) E

    (b) D

    (c) A

    (d) B

    Solution:

    If the route between G and C is closed, there shall be only one route to travel from H to C as follows:

    H           G B          F D E          C

    Thus E, D and B must be passed through to reach C from H. Therefore answer is option (c):

    (c) A

    1. There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there?

    (a) 3

    (b) 4

    (c) 5

    (d) None of the above

    Solution:

    Let the number be 10x + y. Thus the number obtained by reversing its digits shall be 10y + x.

    Now as per the given condition, (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 27

    Thus 9(x-y) = 27 and x – y = 3

    Now (x, y) can take following values: (9,6), (8, 5), (7, 4), (6, 3) (5, 2) and (4, 1). Let us validate our answer:

    96 – 69 = 27

    85 – 58 = 27

    74 – 47 = 27

    63 – 36 = 27

    52 – 25 = 27

    41 – 14 = 27

    Thus there are 6 such 2 digit numbers and hence the answer is

    (d) None of the above

    1. What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?

    (a) 262

    (b) 342

    (c) 360

    (d) 450

    Solution:

    From 1 to 150, there are

    9 single digit numbers (1 to 9) + 90 two digit numbers (10 to 99) + 51 three digit numbers (100 to 150)

    Thus total digits to be printed = (9 × 1) + (90 × 2) + (51 × 3) = 342. Therefore the answer is option (b):

    (b) 342

    1. Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be

    (a) 45 kg

    (b) 47.5 kg

    (c) 50 kg

    (d) 52.5 Kg

    Solution:

    Average weight of first 5 persons = 45 kg

    Therefore, total weight of first 5 persons = 5 × 45 kg = 225 kg……(1)

    Average weight of last 5 persons = 55 kg

    Therefore, total weight of last 5 persons = 5 × 55 kg = 275 kg…….(2)

    If we add (1) and (2) we will get the total weight of 9 persons + weight of 5th person (because weight of 5th person will be present in the total weight of first 5 persons as well as in the total weight of last five persons).

    This means (1) + (2) = Total weight of 9 person + weight of 5th person….(3)

    Total weight of 9 persons = 9 × 50kg = 450 kg….(4)

    Putting values from (1), (2) and (4) in equation (3) we get:

    Weight of 5th person = (1) + (2) – (4) = 225 + 275 – 450 = 50 kg. Therefore the answer is option (c):

    (c) 50 kg

    1. In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?

    (a) Amala

    (b) Komala

    (c) Nirmala

    (d) Shyamala

    Solution:

    Let us put the given information with each of the women:

    Vimala : Bank employee

    Kamla : Bank employee, Sociology

    Amala : Unemployed, Sociology

    Komala : Unemployed, Tennis, Sociology

    Nirmala: Tennis, Sociology

    Shyamala :Commerce

    It is given that Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees and since it is also given that Amala and Komala are unemployed, therefore Nirmala and Kamla should be Bank employees (something which is already given in the case of Kamla).

    Thus we have Nirmala who plays tennis, is post-graduate in Sociology and is also a bank employee. Thus the answer is option (c):

    (c) Nirmala

    1. P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?

    (a) P is greater than Q.

    (b) Q is greater than P.

    (c) P is equal to Q.

    (d) None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

    Solution:

    Here nothing has been said about the relative magnitudes of A and B or whether they are both positive, both negative or one positive and one negative. Therefore, let us assume some value for A and B and see whether we can make any progress:

    Let A = 100 and B = 50. In this case P shall come out to be 72.5 and Q shall be 75. That is P shall be smaller to Q.

    Now Let A = 100 and B = 99. In this case P shall be 104.35 and Q shall become 99.5. That is P shall be greater to Q.

    Thus with different values of A and B, we get different results about magnitudes of P and Q. Thus the answer shall be

    (d) None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

    1. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 while another watch gains 2 minutes, in 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24-hour clock is followed

    (a) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days.

    (b) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days.

    (c) The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 120 days.

    (d) None of the above statements correct.

    Solution:

    First clock loses 2 minutes per 24 hours i.e. it loses 1/30 hours per 24 hours. Thus for t hours it loses t/(30×24) = t/720 hours.

    The second one gains 2 minutes in 24 hours. AAs above, in t hours it gains t/720 hours.

    Now suppose they showed same time at 12 midnight, then after t hours their respective times shall be t + t/720 and t – t/720. Now since it is 24 hour clock, they will show same time again when difference between their times becomes 24.

    That is [t + t/720] – [t – t/720] = 24

    Thus t = 360 × 24 hours

    The number of days after which they will show same time, therefore, shall be (360 × 24) / 24 days = 360 days.

    Thus the answer shall be

    (d) None of the above statements correct.

    1. In a city, 12% of households earn less than Rs. 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than Rs. 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn more than Rs. 1,00,000 per year and 990 households earn between Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 per year. How many households earn between Rs. 1,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 per year?

    (a) 250

    (b) 240

    (c) 230

    (d) 225

    Solution:

    It is given that 6% households earn more than Rs. 2,00,000/- and 22% earn more than Rs. 1,00,000/-. These statements means that this 22% also includes the 6% that earn more than Rs. 2,00,000/-. Therefore, those who earn more than Rs. 1,00,00/- but less than Rs. 2,00,000/- is 22 – 6= 16%   

     

    <  Rs, 30, 000 12%
    Rs. 30, 000 – Rs. 1, 00, 000 990
    Rs. 1,00,000 – Rs. 2,00,000 16%
    > Rs. 2, 00, 000 6%

    Now in percentage terms, number of households earning between Rs. 30, 000 – Rs. 1, 00, 000 will be 100 – 12 – 16 – 6 = 66% (which is equal to 990, as given). Now households earning between Rs. 1,00,000 – Rs. 2,00,000 is 16% i.e. (990/66) × 16 = 240

    Therefore the answer is

    (b) 240

    31.** A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock?

    (a) 20 seconds

    (b) 24 seconds

    (c) 28 seconds

    (d) 30 seconds

    Solution:

    The clock will strike 5 times at 5 o’ clock. These five strikes are interspersed with four intervals as under:

    Strike – Strike – Strike – Strike – Strike

    It is these intervals that take time. When clock strikes 5 times, there are 4 intervals. Total time taken by them is 12 seconds. Thus each interval is of duration 3 seconds.

    When the clock will strike 10 times at 10 o’ clock there shall be 9 such intervals and thus time taken shall be 9 ×3 = 27 seconds.

    Since this is the ideal approach for the question but the answer 27 seconds is not given therefore this question may be dropped by UPSC from evaluation.

    Alternatively, if they want to keep this question (which is unlikely) they would take the answer as option (b) 24 seconds because time taken for 5 strikes = 12 seconds and thus time taken for 10 strikes shall be double of it i.e. 12 × 2 = 24 seconds.

    (b) 24 seconds

    1. Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow:

    Statement:

    Morning walk is good for health.

    Conclusions:

    1. All healthy people go for morning walk.
    2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health.

    What is/are the valid conclusion/ conclusions?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Solution:

    Let us evaluate the conclusions:

    1. All healthy people go for morning walk………Morning walk is good for health but that does not mean ALL healthy people go for walk. Some might go for other activities. And some may not indulge in any activity and still stay fit and healthy. Thus this conclusion is not valid.
    2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health….’Essential’ means without morning walk one cannot be healthy but we just proved above that one can be healthy without morning walk too. Thus this conclusion is also not valid.

    Thus answer is option (d):

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    1. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?

    (a) 47

    (b) 49

    (c) 51

    (d) 45

    Solution:

    Let us assume that the first five required odd number are x – 4, x – 2, x, x + 2, x + 4.

    Now their mean will be [(x – 4) + (x – 2) + x + (x + 2) + (x + 4)]/5 = 39, as given.

    Thus x = 39 and first five numbers become 35, 37, 39, 41, 43.

    Thus the thirteen numbers shall be 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 45, 47, 49, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59.

    Their mean shall be (35 + 37 + 39 + 41 + 43 + 45 + 47 + 49 + 51 + 53 + 55 + 57 + 59)/13 =  47.

    Therefore the answer is

    (a) 47

    Alternatively,

    For an odd number of consecutive numbers the mean is the central number. Here mean of first five number is 39 which means that the third number is 39. For 13 consecutive numbers, mean shall be 7th number. Now third number is 39, fourth shall be 41, fifth shall be 43, sixth shall be 45 and seventh shall be 47.

    1. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes 1 to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards possessed by

    (a) A, B and C

    (b) B, C and F

    (c) A, B and F

    (d) A, C and F

    Solution:

    Here just remember every give and take shall affect two members: One who gains and one who loses. Now let us proceed with each of the with 10 cards at the start and then adjusting the transactions:

    A  : 10 – 2 = 8

    B  : 10 + 3 – 6 = 7

    C  : 10 + 5 – 3 = 12

    D  : 10 + 6 – 1 = 15

    E  : 10 + 1 = 11

    F  : 10 + 2 – 5 = 7

    Now cards possessed by D and E = 15 + 11 = 26.

    Now lets us evaluate the options:

    (a) A, B and C = 8 + 7 + 12 = 27

    (b) B, C and F = 7 + 12 + 7 = 26

    (c) A, B and F = 8 + 7 + 7 = 22

    (d) A, C and F = 8 + 12 + 7 = 27

    Thus answer is option (b):

    (b) B, C and F

    1. There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to

    (a) 25%

    (b) 30%

    (c) 35%

    (d) 40%

    Solution:

    Since we have to take 1/3 of the solution therefore let us assume that the volume of solution was 90 L (i.e. something which we can easily divide in 3 parts).

    Now one-third of this solution is taken. That means 30 L is taken. This 30 L will have 15 L milk and 15 L water (because water and milk are 50% and 50%).

    Now this solution of 30 L (15 L milk + 15 L water) is added to equal amount of pure milk. Thus 30 L of pure milk is added. Thus finally we have in the new mixture: 45 L milk + 15 L water. Thus water is 15/60 parts = ¼ parts which is 25%.

    Thus the answer is option (a):

    (a) 25%

    1. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?

    (a) 16

    (b) 24

    (c) 36

    (d) 42

    Solutions:

    When a group of vertical and horizontal lines, which also happen to be parallel equidistant, intersect they form quadrilaterals, each of which is either a rectangle or a square.

    Now to make a quadrilateral we should choose 2 vertical lines and 2 horizontal lines. From 4 vertical lines 2 lines can be chosen in C(4,2) ways = 4! / (2! × 2!) = 6 ways.

    Similarly out of 4  horizontal lines, 2 lines can be chosen in C(4,2) ways = 4! / (2! × 2!) = 6 ways.

    Thus total number of quadrilateral (which would invariably be either square or rectangle as required by the question) shall be 6 × 6 = 36. Thus the answer is option (c):

    (d) 42

    1. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?

    (a) 480 km

    (b) 260 km

    (c) 240 km

    (d) 120 km

    Solution:

    Two hours later the freight train from Delhi to Mumbai must have covered a distance of 40 × 2 = 80 km. Now in this question, we know that the express train is running faster than the freight train so it will eventually catch up with the freight train. If we assume that after 2 hours the freight train has stopped then basically we have to find out in how much time the express train (whose relative speed will be 60-40 = 20 km/hr) cover the distance of 80 km that separates the two trains. Now with 20 km/hr the express train would cover 80 km in 4 hours. Thus in four hours the distance covered by the express train shall be 4 × 60 = 240 km. Hence the answer is option (c).

    [This is similar to the policeman and thief question asked in one of the previous years.]

    (c) 240 km

    Alternatively,

    When express train starts, the freight train has already covered 80 km. After one more hour, the trains would have covered 60 km and 120 km respectively. After yet another hour: 120 km and 160 km. After yet another hour: 180 km and 200 km. And finally after one more hour they would have covered distances of 240 km and 240 km. Thus after covering 240 km from Delhi both train shall be at the same position. This method can be used if the above concept explained earlier is not clear and the figures of distance and speed are pretty simple as in this question.

    1. In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?

    (a) Randhir

    (b) Neha

    (c) Sonal

    (d) Data are inadequate

    Solution:

    Let us list the contenders first:

    Randhir, Kunal, Debu ,Shankar, Sonal  and Neha

    Now Randhir > Kunal + Debu this means Randhir has got more marks than Kunal and Debu. Thus Kunal and Debu are out of race.

    Sonal > Shankar and Neha > Randhir. This means Shankar and Randhir are out of race. And we are left with Sonal and Neha. Now there is no condition that can help us compare the marks of Sonal and Neha. Therefore, the answer is

    (d) Data are inadequate

    Directions for the following 2 (two) items: – Consider the given information and answer the two items that follow.

    No supporters of ‘party X’, who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with ‘party Y’; but some of them had friends in ‘party Y’.

    1. With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?

    (a) Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did not agree for the alliance with the `party X’.

    (b) There is at least one supporter of `party Y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend.

    (c) No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy.

    (d) No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.

    Solution:

    Let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did not agree for the alliance with the `party X’….No mention of alliance between X and Y…OUT

    (b) There is at least one supporter of `party Y’ who knew some supporters of ‘party X’ as a friend…Statement has some supporters of party X has friends in party Y which means that there were some (at least one) supporter of party Y who knew some supporter (at least one) of party X as friend…ANSWER

    (c) No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy….The statement is that no supporters of party X who knew Z and supported his campaign agreed for alliance with Party Y, which means that there were some supporters of party X who did support Z and his campaign strategy…OUT

    (d) No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z….The statement begin with those supporters of party X who knew Z…OUT

    1. With reference to the above information, consider the following statement
    2. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z
    3. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z’s campaign strategy, knew Z.
    4. No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy.

    Which of the statements given above, is/are not correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Solution:

    Let us evaluate the options:

    1. Some supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z…… This statement is correct.
    2. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who opposed Z’s campaign strategy, knew Z…Statement is silent about those supporters of party X who knew Z but still would have supported his campaign…So this statement is not correct.
    3. No supporters of ‘party X’ supported Z’s campaign strategy….Statement says there were some supporters of party X who knew Z and supported his campaign…. So this statement is not correct.

    Thus statement 2 and 3 are not correct and answer is option (b):

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    1. If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?

    (a) 23

    (b) 22

    (c) 21

    (d) 20

    Solution:

    Since we have to find out minimum number of working days therefore let us chose a month with minimum number of days. That would be February of 28 days. These 28 days shall have 4 days of each of the 7 days of the week i.e. 4 Mondays, 4 Tuesdays and so on. Now out of these 28 days 4 Sundays shall be holiday and 2 Saturdays (second and fourth) shall be holiday. So number of working days = 28 – 4 – 2  = 22. Therefore the answer is:

    (b) 22

    1. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of population of a community has migrated every year from one place, to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period?

    (a) 16/243rd part of the population

    (b) 32/243rd part of the population

    (c) 32/729th part of the population

    (d) 64/729th part of the population

    Solution:

    1/3rd population is migrating every year therefore the population will continue to become 2/3rd of the previous year.

    So after one year the population will be 2/3 × original population.

    After 2 years it will be 2/3 × 2/3 × original population and so on.

    So after six years remaining population shall be 2/3 × 2/3 ×2/3 × 2/3 ×2/3 × 2/3 × original population i.e. 64/729th part of population. Thus answer is option (d):

    (d) 64/729th part of the population

    1. Four tests—Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?

    (a) Physics

    (b) Biology

    (c) Mathematics

    (d) Chemistry

    Solution:

    Chemistry is third to be held as is given. Now Biology cannot be fourth because passage says there is a test that is to be held after Biology. Now Biology cannot be first as well since Physics is to be held before Biology. Thus Biology is second. Since Physics is before Biology thus Physics is first and the remaining one i.e. Mathematics is last. And hence the answer is:

    (c) Mathematics

    Alternatively,

    Since Physics is to be held before the test (say T) which is conducted after Biology that means we have this order Physics, Biology, T (we are not considering the final order yet). This means Physics and Biology are not the last tests to be held and thus option (a) and (b) are not the answer. Chemistry is held exactly after two tests are held i.e. Chemistry is the third test to be held and thus even Chemistry is not the last test. And hence the answer is Mathematics.

    1. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest?

    (a) A

    (b) B

    (c) C

    (d) D

    Solution:

    Let A, B, C and D represent their respective incomes.

    A + B > C + D….(1)

    A + C = B + D

    A = (B+D)/2  and thus C = (B+D)/2 which implies that A = C….(2)

    Putting A = C in (1) we get,  A + B > A + D which means B > D….(3)

    Now adding C + D to both sides of (1), we get A + B + C + D > 2C + 2D

    Or (A+C) + (B+D) > 2C + 2D

    Or 2B + 2D > 2C + 2D (because A + C = B + D)

    Or B > C…. (4)

    From (2), (3) and (4) we get B > C = A and B > D, thus B is the greatest.

    Therefore answer is

    (b) B

    1. Consider the following:

    Statement:

    Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music.

    Conclusions:

    1. Natural gifts need nurturing and care.
    2. Even though one’s voice is not good, one can keep practising.

    Which one of the following is correct, in respect of the above statement and conclusions?

    (a) Only conclusion I follows from the statement.

    (b) Only conclusion II follows from the statement.

    (c) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows from the statement.

    (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement.

    Solution:

    The Statement basically means that good voice is natural gift but to excel in field of music one still needs to practice in order to improve and excel. That means natural gift alone is not sufficient, it needs nurturing and care FOR music. But the statement nowhere proffers that every natural gift needs nurturing and caring as the statement is specific to the field of music. Thus conclusion I does not necessarily follows from the statement. Conclusion II is not connected to the statement as the statement is about natural gifts and not about those who do not have good voice and thus does not even mention what people with voice which is not good should or should not do. Consequently conclusion II does not follow from the statement. Therefore the answer is option (d):

    (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement.

    1. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?

    (a) 161 cm

    (b) 163 cm

    (c) 182 cm

    (d) 210 cm

    Solution:

    After one chance:

    actual height covered by X = 6 – 1 = 5 cm,

    actual height covered by Y = 7 – 3 = 4 cm,

    actual height covered by Z = 6.5 – 2 = 4.5 cm.

    Now in 40th attempt they will reach the top means till 39th chance they will climb up and slip but in 40th chance they will only climb and reach the top (if they slip they will not reach the top).

    Thus after 39th chance:

    total height covered by X = 39 × 5 = 195 cm

    total height covered by Y = 39 × 4 = 156 cm

    total height covered by Z = 39 × 4.5 = 175.5 cm

    and after 40th climb:

    total height covered by X = 195 + 6 = 201 cm

    total height covered by Y = 156  + 7 = 163 cm

    total height covered by Z = 175.5 + 6.5 = 182 cm

    Thus shortest pillar is 163 cm in height and the answer is option (b):

    (b) 163 cm

    1. “Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.”

    In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights?

    (a) Rights aim at individual good only.

    (b) Rights aim at social good only.

    (c) Rights aim at both individual and social good.

    (d) Rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being.

    Solution:

    Statements can be understood as meaning that the Rights are conditions of social well being which is indispensable for individual development as well thus Rights target both social and individual well being and thus the answer is option (c):

    (c) Rights aim at both individual and social good.

    1. 15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is his position from the bottom?

    (a) 18th

    (b) 17th

    (c) 16th

    (d) 15th

    Answer. C

    Solution:

    15 students failed out of 52. After removing the students who failed we are left with 52 – 15 = 37 students. In the list of 37 students Ramesh is 22 from the top that means there are 37 – 22 = 15 students below it and thus from the bottom his position is 16th. Thus the answer is option (c):

    (c) 16th

    1. Consider the following:

    A+ B means A is the son of B.

    A – B means A is the wife of B.

    What does the expression P + R – Q mean?

    (a) Q is the son of P.

    (b) Q is the wife of P.

    (c) Q is the father of P.

    (d) None of the above

    Solution:

    P + R = P is son of R which means P is male and R is male or female.

    So P + R – Q = R is wife of Q (If we take R is male then she cannot be in the role of wife thus we can say that R is female).

    Thus we get that R (wife) and Q (husband) have a son P.

    Thus answer is option (c):

    (c) Q is the father of P.

    1. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal’s position if he agreed?

    (a) Neither loss nor gain

    (b) Loss 1%

    (c) Gain 1%

    (d) Gain 0.5%

     

    Solution:

    Suppose Gopal got the cell phone for Rs. 100/-. He sold it to Ram at 10% profit i.e. he sold it to Ram for Rs. 110/-.  Now Ram wants to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss i.e. only for 90% of the amount for which is got it. Thus he will sell it to Gopal for Rs. 0.9 × 110 = Rs. 99/-

    Thus Gopal makes a profit of Rs. 1 over an initial investment of Rs. 100/-  Thus the answer is

    (c) Gain 1%

                                                        * * * * * * *

  • [CSAT Preparation] English Comprehension: Previous years paper analysis & key takeaways

    Since the CSAT was introduced in the year 2011, the number of questions based on comprehension in Paper II has been steadily high and no candidate can escape attempting at least few of the passages

    The range and complexity of the passages has also undergone a visible change and so has the variety of questions

    Instead of writing a didactic ‘How to attempt comprehension passages” blog we have taken up the passages that appeared in CSP-2017, Paper II and show you first-hand how you can attempt the passages with accuracy. The 2017 CSP Paper II was a quintessential paper encompassing passages from a multitude of topics

    But before that have a look at some of the numbers:

    Now we are all set to take up the passages and try our hands at some reverse engineering:

    [Passage 1] What climate change will undeniably do is cause of amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource based conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts over resources like water are often cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.

    What does the above passage imply?

    (a) Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated.

    (b) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts.

    (c) Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflicts

    (d) Political conflicts based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved.

    Solution:

    If we sum up the passage in our language it basically says that climate change will lead to resource crunch, this crunch would lead to conflicts and that many identity or ideology based conflicts are in fact conflicts engenders by resource scarcity. Now let us evaluate each option:

    (a) Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated – The passage, in fact, contends just the opposite i.e. many politically palatable conflicts are, in truth, resource-based….OUT

    (b) There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts….The passage is talking about the problem and not the solution and as such is not asserting whether there can be any political situation to the looming crisis…..OUT

    (c) Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflicts…This is exactly how we summed-up the passage and is indeed the needed implication….ANSWER

    (d) Political conflicts based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved……The passage is not about whether and how political conflicts can be resolved…OUT

    [Passage 2] The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend—who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan-can never accomplish anything. He will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit—that can advance to eminence in any line.

    The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that

    (a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly

    (b) we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged

    (c) we should always remain broad-minded

    (d) we should be resolute and achievement-oriented

    Solution:

    Again summing-up the passage – we should take wise consul, then take a resolution and stand our ground. If we keep vacillating we will never reach anywhere.

    Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly…YES, it is a contender for answer choice but let us go on with other options first.

    (b) we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged….The passage is about our ability to stay focused and not about rejecting the suggestions of friends. In fact rejecting a suggestion just for the sake of it might be counter-productive as it may be a wise suggestion.

    (c) we should always remain broad-minded……………It is not really clear what the option means by being ‘broad-minded’ so this option can be avoided at this stage.

    (d) we should be resolute and achievement-oriented…..YES, this is another contender for the answer choice and but compared with option (a), we see that what option (a) says is stated very clearly in the passage and thus it should be preferred over option (d).

    Hence option (a) should be marked as answer choice as the most appropriate among the options given.

    [Passage 3] During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice has been melting earlier and faster, and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening period of summer melt threatens to undermine the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand polar bears.

    Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

    (a) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high

    (b) Polar bears can be shifted to the South Pole to ensure their survival

    (c) Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear

    (d) Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears

    Solution:

    The passage asks for the most crucial massage. As we can see that the passage goes on to lament the conditions in the Arctic and closes the passage with the assertion that these conditions threaten the food chain atop which sits the polar bear. Basically the passage was a built-up to drive home the point that polar bears are at risk due to conditions that Arctic now faces. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high…The passage does talks about the havoc that climate change is wreaking in the Arctic region but that is not the most crucial message. The whole revelation about increasing melt and delayed winter freeze is to drive home the point of its effect on the food chain in Arctic and thus this, in itself, is not the most crucial message of the passage……………..OUT

    (b) Polar bears can be shifted to the South Pole to ensure their survival…….This is one-of-a-kind solution for the survival of the Polar bears but this is not what the passage proffers. The passage is not even discussing any solution, plausible or adventurous……OUT

    (c) Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear….Again the passage is not discussing the effect of presence or absence of Polar bear on the Arctic food chain…..OUT

    (d) Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears…..This is the most plausible among the options given that qualifies as the most crucial message of the passage as it syncs with what the passage eventually leads to…..ANSWER

    [Passage 4] Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes? Recent research has shown two critical elements: ideas of purity and pollution, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill because they have to be emptied. These are the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if we want to eradicate the practice of open defection, they have to be confronted and dealt properly.

    Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

    (a) The ideas of purity and pollutions are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people

    (b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting

    (c) People cannot change their old habits

    (d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy

    Solution:

    Let us evaluate the options:

    (a) The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people….If the passage were to suggest that ideas of purity and pollution, arguably the reason behind people’s preference for open defecation, are so entrenched that they cannot be altered then it shall not suggest remedy to bring out behavioral changes in people…..OUT

    (b) People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting …..This is indeed the message of the passage that we have being about a change in the perception of the people and make them see toilet use and pit-emptying as clean……..ANSWER

    (c) People cannot change their old habits……If the passage meant that people cannot change their old habits it would not go on to suggest that we should counter the people’s perceived notions to bring about a change in their preference for open defecation…OUT

    (d) People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy………The passage is not a commentary on the civic sense of the people and is rather in the nature of trying to figure out the reason behind the preference for open defecation………..OUT

    [Passage 5] In the last two decades, the world’s gross domestic product (GDP) has increased 50 percent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere 6 percent. In recent decades, GDP-driven economic performance, has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural capital like forests, land and water. While the world’s human capital which stands at 57 percent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 percent, the natural which is 23 percent of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 per cent worldwide in the last two decades.

    Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?

    (a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital

    (b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable

    (c) The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory

    (d) The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances

    Solution:

    Let us evaluate the options for the crucial inference of the passage. But before that, let us sum-up the passage: GDP driven growth – inequity – harming inclusive wealth. Now let us get back at the options:

    (a) More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital…..Where is the passage making any such suggestion?….OUT

    (b) The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable…..This can be inferred from the passage as the passage mentions that GDP driven growth is harming inclusive wealth like human and natural capital. And thus we can infer that only GDP driven growth is undesirable….ANSWER

    (c) The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory….The passage says GDP grew by 50 percent. If that is not satisfactory then what is?….OUT

    (d) The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances…Human capital already stands at 57 percent and there is no suggestion in the passage that we need any more of it…..OUT

    [Passage 6] By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India’s labour force was estimated to be about 40 per cent of the population, but 93 per cent of this force was in unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of employment has slowed to 0.5 per cent, with about 14 million jobs created during last year when the labour force increased by about 15 million.

    Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

    (a) India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate

    (b) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force

    productively

    (c) India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon

    (d) India is capable of supplying skilled young people to oil countries

    Solutions:

    The passage, in our words, can be re-written as – a shortage of labour force is imminent and if India wants to tap into this opportunity with its young labour force, labour reforms are a necessity. Everything else is customary paraphernalia to underscore this suggestion.

    Now let us evaluate the options and check which one comes closest to our understanding of the passage:

    (a) India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate…Passage is about labour reforms and not population control…..OUT

    (b) Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively…This is what gels well with our understanding of the passage…ANSWER

    (c) India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon…..Passage suggests that India can achieve double-digit growth if we take care of labour reforms and not that such growth is automatic and imminent……OUT

    (d) India is capable of supplying skilled young people to oil countries……Supplying young people to other countries? And oil countries in specific??…..OUT

    [Passage 7] The very first lesson that should be taught to us when are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we can escape our share of the burden of work only by throwing it on someone else’s shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall perish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The question we have to settle is how much leisure we can afford to allow ourselves.

    The main idea of the passage is that

    (a) it is essential for human beings to work

    (b) there should be a balance between work and leisure

    (c) working is a tyranny which we to face

    (d) human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential

    Solution:

    As we understand it, the passage suggests that we should not succumb to ergophobia (aka abnormal fear or aversion to work). We have to ensure that we maintain a healthy balance between work and leisure. And that work-leisure balance is the main idea of the passage is corroborated by the last statement which ends the passage by throwing a challenge to identify how much leisure can be allowed. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) it is essential for human beings to work…YES, this is an answer-contender

    (b) there should be a balance between work and leisure…..YES, again an answer-contender. Rather a more potent answer contender as the passage ends with a call to limit leisure to healthy proportion.

    (c) working is a tyranny which we to face….The passage has used nature’s tyranny as a simile to drive home the point that we must work and this is not the main idea of the passage..OUT

    (d) human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential…The passage is not about the understanding of nature of work but about its necessity…OUT

    Thus between option (a) and option (b), option (b) seems to be more appropriate as it combines both leisure and work, the two themes touched upon in the passage.

    [Passage 8] There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take away our habits and the residuum would hardly be worth bothering about. We could not get on without them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They enable us to do a multitude of things automatically, which, if we had to give fresh and original thought to them each time, would make existence an impossible confusion.

    The author suggests that habits

    (a) tend to make our lives difficult

    (b) add precision to our lives

    (c) make it easier for us to live

    (d) tend to mechanize our lives

    Solution:

    Let us evaluate the options:

    (a) tend to make our lives difficult…The passage suggests just the opposite…OUT

    (b) add precision to our lives…..The passage talks about making our lives easy and not precise…OUT

    (c) make it easier for us to live…This is definitely suggested in the passage in the statement, They simplify the mechanism of life…..YES…but before locking it as answer we will also look at option d

    (d) tend to mechanize our lives…The passage does mentions that habits enable us to handle several chorus automatically but it does not suggest that habits make our life mechanical which is sort of a pessimistic view of the author’s view and the passage does not seem to be a pessimistic take on habits….OUT

    [Passage 9] We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full, till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance, and we have to live up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, are equally the children of India with, equal rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow-mindedness, for no nation can be great whose people are narrow in thought or action.

    The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve

    (a) a high standard of living, progress and privileges

    (b) equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance

    (c) spirit of adventure and economic parity

    (d) hard work, brotherhood and national unity

    Solution:

    In first glance, the passage seems to be some kind of exhortation by the author to work for the achievement of the high ideals. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) a high standard of living, progress and privileges….The tone and tenor of the exhortation suggests that is not about standard of living but is about greater things…OUT

    (b) equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance…..privilege and political tolerance is not what the challenge is about. The author does use the word destiny but the usage appears to be more figurative in the sense that people should achieve what they are capable of….OUT

    (c) spirit of adventure and economic parity….spirit of adventure? The passage does not exhort people to become adventurous…OUT

    (d) hard work, brotherhood and national unity….This gels most with the tone of the passage…ANSWER

    [Passage 10] “The individual, according to Rousseau, puts his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and in our corporate capacity we receive each member as an indivisible part of the whole.”

    In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as

    (a) the sum total of the private wills of the individuals

    (b) what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals

    (c) the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals

    (d) the material interests of the community

    Solution:

    In common parlance, the passage means, individuals are part of a whole which is guided by the ‘General Will’ or, in more general terms, by the collective good that overrides the individual good. Hence the answer option is option (c).

    (c) the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals

    [Passage 11] In a democratic State, where a high degree of Political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign law-making body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs.

    What does the above passage imply?

    (a) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

    (b) In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

    (c) In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty

    (d) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty

    Solution:

    A tangential look at the option leads to the consternation about what is the relevance of words like ‘force’ and ‘sovereignty’ which find no mention at all in the passage. But if we read the passage again and try to connect it with the options, we realize that the passage is really about the fact that conflict seldom occurs in mature democracy and the use of ‘force’ is minimal and yet again the force is not obliterated completely. Now under the aegis of our such mature understanding of the passage let us evaluate the options:

    (a) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force as main phenomenon?…OUT

    (b) In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force to great extent?….OUT

    (c) In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force is irrelevant?..OUT

    (d) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty…force is there but is minimal…ANSWER

    [Passage 12] A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in which voting is an essential part. To deliberately refrain from taking such an interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy, it is to refuse one’s political responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a free political society.

    This passage relates to

    (a) duty to vote

    (b) right to vote

    (c) freedom to vote

    (d) right to participate in politics

    Solution:

    The passage is in the form of a commentary on the people who take democracy for granted and shy away from their responsibility and duty to vote to ensure a healthy vibrant democracy. Here there is no need to evaluate each option separately and the answer is clearly option (a).

    (a) duty to vote…ANSWER

    [Passage 13] In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding, character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country.

    The passage seems to suggest that

    (a) a leader foresees his future position

    (b) a leader is chosen only by a free country

    (c) a leader must see that his country is free from despair

    (d) despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship

    Solution:

    Our understanding of the passage: leader show signs from childhood while dictators may be incidental.

    Now lets us evaluate the options:

    (a) a leader foresees his future position……The passage does not talk about the clairvoyant skills of a leader…OUT

    (b) a leader is chosen only by a free country……The passage is not discussing who chooses a leader and who chooses a dictator…OUT

    (c) a leader must see that his country is free from despair….The passage is not about what a leader should or should not do…OUT

    (d) despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship….This gels really well with the passage which suggests that dictatorship is often result of despairing conditions of a country…ANSWER

    [Passage 14] The greatest blessing that technological progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime is not great. But there is not the same narrow limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by people who have had no experience of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a minority in societies has been the mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level.

    With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

    1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions.
    2. Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress.

    Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Solution:

    Our reading of the passage is : material possessions is not everything as no one can have every material possession and still enjoy it. But the possibility to enjoy leisure is unbounded. And during this leisure time, a minuscule population gets sucked up in creative and original pursuits that engender human advancement.

    Now if we evaluate the two assumptions we can see that the word ‘always’ makes the assumption one a sweeping generalisation and is thus out.

    Assumption 2 is almost verbatim from the passage and is thus valid. So the answer option is (b):

    (b) 2 only

    [Passage 15] There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying particularly the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win—and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose and the student will see that the same pattern recurs consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.

    With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

    1. A study of the famous battles in history would help us understand the modern warfare.
    2. Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader.

    Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Solution:

    Here we are evaluating the validity of the assumptions made. Now, see that eventually assumptions may or may not come out to be true but we need to only check whether we can make these assumptions from the passage or not without bothering about their eventual outcome. For example, if we consider the second assumption, we cannot discard it by countering it by claiming that it is not true that every leader must study history but we can certainly say from the passage that for an aspiring leader a study of history is essential! Did that make sense? I hope it did.

    As for the first assumption, the passage does not make out a case suggesting that studying past battle shall help us understand modern warfare.

    Hence answer is

    (b) 2 only

    [Passage 16] Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas others align themselves with new groups and symbols emergent from processes of political development. In addition, political development tends to foster group awareness of a variety of class, tribe, region, clan, language, religion, occupation and others.

    Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?

    (a) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay

    (b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development

    (c) It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties

    (d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development

    Solutions:

    Alignment along traditional and new groups may lead to ambivalent situations. Political development creates new identities along which people may align themselves severing ties with traditional institutions. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay…That is not a unilinear process can be made out from the fact that it creates multitude of group awareness. This option is still in race and now let’s checkout other options.

    (b) Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development…No, infact people align themselves along new groups and symbols..OUT

    (c) It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties…’Impossible’ is too strong a word especially when passage sage people do align with new symbols and groups engendered by political development….OUT

    (d) Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development…The passage does not make any case for continuation of traditional loyalties…OUT

    Since option (b), (c) and (d) have been ruled out, we can mark option (a) as the answer.

    [Passage 17] There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government, resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterized as being made up of three factors—political legitimacy, decentralization of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient political mobilization for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process often does not fulfil its objectives.

    Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization

    (b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise

    (c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level

    (d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential

    Solution:

    Our understanding of passage: decentralization due to grass-root demand seems good but that which is initiated in the upper levels may miss its target. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution and decentralization….The passage is not talking about the emergence of strong leaders to create sub-national entities thus ensuring devolution…OUT

    (b) The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise….The last statement of the passage counters this option by stating that the devolution initiated by upper tier my miss its objective..OUT

    (c) Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level…The passage suggests that devolution engendered by mass demand from below has political legitimacy and for it can be inferred that it can happen when people at lower level should be able to freely express themselves and participate actively in the process….ANSWER

    (d) For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential…The passage suggests that devolution can happen if initiated by upper tiers as well, even though it may not work as intended, and thus strong regional feeling is not a prerequisite for devolution ……OUT

    [Passage 18] We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and; like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our lives. The digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance.

    Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?

    (a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies

    (b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living

    (c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media

    (d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future

    Solution:

    The passage is about the omnipresence of digital world. That it has come to shape the context that defines our understanding i.e. it may appear invisible but has become an integral part of our existence. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies…..’All’ ? Sweeping statement. Nevertheless, the passage is about the permanency of the digital world and not about how digital tech can solve governance problems….OUT

    (b) Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living…YES..when we talk of life and living we unconsciously also talk of digital techs which have so smoothly entered our lives that we do not even notice their existence..but let us evaluate remaining options first.

    (c) Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media..Again sweeping statement! We may have to love with digital tech all around us but that does not mean our creativity cannot be expressed without digital means. What about our creativity on the walls of the archaeological sites that we so lovingly adorn (aka desecrate) with our drawings?….OUT

    (d) Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future….That digital tech has become part of our daily living does not mean we cannot survive without it i.e. it is not imperative!…OUT

    In the light of above, the answer choice is option (b).

    [Passage 19] The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into ‘middle-income trap’. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point—a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle-income trap—none of which is surprising—from infrastructure to weak institutions, to less than favourable macroeconomic conditions. But the broad, overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth of productivity.

    Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes

    (b) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies

    (c) There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum

    (d) As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory

    Solution:

    Our understanding : Asian economies – risk of income being plateau out – due to collapse of productivity growth. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes…Yes, the passage is about the middle-income trap phenomenon which befalls the growing economies if corrective action is not taken. So this is an answer-candidate. But before marking it as the final answer let us evaluate other options.

    (b) Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies….No, the passage says that economies of Asia face this risk and not that it is a general characteristic of fast growing economies….OUT

    (c) There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum….’no hope’ ? Again very strong uncorroborated statement. Of course there is light at the end of the tunnel by boosting productivity growth….OUT

    (d) As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory …The passage is making an assertion based on past experience that fast growing economies are facing a risk of falling into middle-income trap. The passage is no where commenting that these economies are not performing well. In fact, it says that they are fast emerging economies….OUT

    Thus based on above elimination of options (b), (c) and (d), we get option (a) as the answer.

    [Passage 20] An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the cost of goods and services and create income – earning opportunities for the poor people.

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration

    (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors

    (c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society

    (d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid

    Solution:

    Our understanding of the passage: Invest in R&D as it can stem inequality. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration….R&D is essential as made out by the passage but that it is the ‘only way’ has not been mentioned anywhere in the passage….OUT

    (b) Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors….The passage is concerned about R&D and inequality and not about agriculture and other sectors, so it cannot be most logical assumption….OUT

    (c) Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society….Yes, this is the case that the passage intends to make. It claims that inclusive innovation and R&D can reduce inequality and create a just society…now let’s check out last option before finalizing this as answer choice.

    (d) Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid…Urbanization is not even what the passage is about. Only reference to is while claiming that R&D can tackle the issues arising out of rapid urbanization…OUT

    Thus our final answer is option (c).

    [Passage 21] Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate refugees, who is going to provide protection? More emphasis has been given to international migration due to climate change. But there is a need to recognize the migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be addressed properly.

    Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

    (a) The world will not be able to cope with large scale migration of climate refugees

    (b) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change

    (c) Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future

    (d) Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood

    Solution:

    Our understanding of the passage: The passage is essentially about the environmental refugees. The passage suggests that such categorization of migrants is still not commonplace as it lacks a consensus definition and the intra-country migration is to be recognised as well. And even when such migration is recognised who will provide for the refugees? Now let us evaluate the options:

    Now let is evaluate the options:

    (a) The world will not be able to cope with large scale migration of climate refugees…The passage does not mention if the world would be able to cope or not..OUT

    (b) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change…Well indeed we must find ways but this passage is about environmental refugees and how to provide for them and not about finding ways to contain climate change…OUT

    (c) Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future….That climate change will lead to migration is true as per passage but passage does not vouch for the fact it shall be the ‘most important’ factor for migration of people…OUT

    (d) Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood …Yes, it is indeed the case as this is the reason why the world has been unable to recognize and define this category of migrants properly..ANSWER

    [Passage 22] Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soil. They help in the maintenance of biological diversity, of predators and the reduction of environmental contamination and human health hazards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable alternative.

    # On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

    1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modem agriculture.
    2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance.
    3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides.

    Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Solution:

    Our summary of the passage: The passage is about synthetic Vs botanical. And we underline the properties, this is what we get –

    Synthetic: toxic, enter food chain, persistent, destroy diversity, cause imbalance, insects develop resistance

    Botanical: in use for millions of years, break down into harmless compounds in presence of sunlight, no ill/adverse effects on ecosystems, maintain biodiversity, easily broken down by microbes, reduced contamination and health hazard , practical sustainable alternative.

    1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modem agriculture….Nowhere mentioned
    2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance….True
    3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides…No comparison of respective efficacies.

    Since only the second statement is correct the answer is option (b).

    (b) 2 only

    # Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides?

    1. They are not hazardous to human health.
    2. They are persistent in environment.
    3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Let us look at the given statements:

    1. They are not hazardous to human health…Yes, as per the passage
    2. They are persistent in environment….No, they breakdown fast
    3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem…They maintain biodiversity as mentioned in the passage but passage nowhere claims that they are ‘essential’ for maintaining the biodiversity.

    Since only statement 1 is correct answer is option (a):

    (a) 1 only

    [Passage 23] An air quality index (AQI) is a way to combine measurements of multiple air pollutants into a single number or rating. This index is ideally kept constantly updated and available in different places. The AQI is most useful when lots of pollution data are being gathered and when pollution levels are normally, but not always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels spike for a few days, the public can quickly take preventive action (like staying indoors) in response to an air quality warning. Unfortunately, that is not urban India. Pollution levels in many large Indian cities are so high that they remain well above any health or regulatory standard for large part of the year. If our index stays in the Red/Dangerous’ region day after day, there is not much any one can do, other than getting used to ignoring it.

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free

    (b) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country

    (c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities

    (d) In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase

    Solution:

    Our take on the passage – AQI works well when levels are low because in that case spikes are easily identifiable. However it is not much useful in Indian cities as levels are perpetually high making the indicator redundant. Now let us evaluate the options in fresh air:

    (a) Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free…The passage is taking about the pollutions levels and the utility of AQI and not a commentary on the lackadaisical attitude of governments….OUT

    (b) There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country…..Absolutely no need is tantamount to stretching the argument too far. That it is not working optimally is no reason to cast it aside altogether…OUT

    (c) Air quality index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities…Exactly. This is what the passage says that AQI’s utility is under cloud….ANSWER

    (d) In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase…This is what should happen but this is not what the passage seeks to perpetuate….OUT

    [Passage 24] Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good job is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, but the experience of other countries suggests that the number of people dependent on agriculture will have to shrink if per capita incomes in agriculture are to go up substantially. While industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are relatively of high productivity, but employment growth in services has been slow in recent years.

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion

    (b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion

    (c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture

    (d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture

    Solution:

    Our take on the passage: people engaged in agriculture should come down in order for agricultural per capita incomes to go up. Jobs created by the industry are mostly low income jobs in unorganized sector. Growth in high productivity service sector is slow.

    Let us evaluate the options now and evaluate our productivity to identify the right option:

    (a) We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion…..YES that is a plausible inference from the passage but before marking it as the answer let us evaluate other options as well.

    (b) We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion……The passage says that manufacturing/ industry sector is not really highly productive and shifting the farm workers (assuming options meant all of the) is not viable method to occasion high growth as where would agriculture go then?…OUT

    (c) We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture…Another contender for answer choice as everything seems to be right with the option. Comparing it with option (a), this option (a) seems more germane as it talks of jobs and inclusion, something with which the passage opens and hence option (a) is more appropriate inference. Moreover the passage nowhere mentions what should be done with agriculture sector as is mentioned in option (c).

    (d) We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture….The passage is not talking about hybrid varieties and modified crops…OUT

    [Passage 25] A Landscape-scale approach to land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in 1998, farms using eco agricultural practices suffered 58 percent, 70 percent and 99 percent less damage in Honduras, Nicaragua and Guatemala, respectively, than farms using conventional techniques. In Costa, vegetative windbreaks and fencerows boosted farmers’ income from pasture and coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee pollination is more effective when agricultural fields are closer to natural or seminatural habitat, a finding that matters because 87 percent of the world’s 107 leading crops depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica, Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems which integrate trees with pastureland are improving the sustainability of cattle production, and diversifying and increasing farmers’ income.

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters

    (b) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture

    (c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there

    (d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them

    Solution:

    Our understanding: Eco-agricultural activities are better then conventional activities. Enough examples and figures given to ingrain the idea into our head. Now let us evaluate the options:

    (a) Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters….Yes certainly an answer-contender. Now move on to other options.

    (b) All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace ecoagriculture with conventional agriculture…..No. Just the opposite in fact…OUT

    (c) Ecoagriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there….Passage is not making out a case for allowing ecoegricultural activities inside the protected areas…OUT

    (d) The yield of food crops will be very high if ecoagricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them….The passage is silent about the yield….OUT

    Ruling out the other three options, we are left with option (a) as the most plausible inference from the passage and that is thus the answer option.

    [Passage 26] The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value-added sectors, and from lower to higher productivity sectors. Medium tech industries are primarily capital intensive and resource processing; and high tech industries are mainly capital and technology intensive. In order to push the share of manufacturing in overall GDP to the projected 25 per cent, Indian manufacturing needs to capture the global market in sectors showing a rising trend in demand. These sectors are largely high technology and capital intensive.

    Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

    (a) India’s GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries

    (b) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India

    (c) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development

    (d) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand

    Solution:

    In our words passage means: manufacturing should move from lower to higher end and that we should make inroads into booming global sectors. Let us evaluate the options now:

    (a) India’s GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries…If this were true why would we need to shift from medium to high end?…OUT

    (b) Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India…Passage is in the form of what we should do and is not talking about if it is possible to do or not…OUT

    (c) India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development….This is what can be inferred from the passage doing this would lead to what the passage seems to suggest…ANSWER

    (d) India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand…No we have not gained a firm ground in global markets and hence passage suggests that we should make foray into such sectors….OUT

    [Passage 27] Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of food grains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, consequently, has added huge of food grains in the granaries. India is one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits and vegetables. India is still home to a quarter of all undernourished people in the world. On an average, almost half of the total expenditure of nearly half of the households is on food.

    Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

    (a) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition

    (b) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India

    (c) India’s agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further

    (d) Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India

    Solution:

    Before we start evaluating the options let us understand what is meant by ‘corollary’. For our purpose it simply means what follows from what is given i.e. which of the given options can follow from the arguments presented in the passage.

    Now our take on passage: It presents an irony. Water, water everywhere not a drop to drink. Enough production, enough storage still high levels of hunger.

    (a) Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition…YES this should indeed happen if the arguments of the passage are true. So this is a contender for answer choice. But let us evaluate other options.

    (b) Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India….The passase is arguing just the opposite. That there is enough productions still malnutrition and hunger and it is not getting eliminated automatically…OUT

    (c) India’s agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further…Passage is presenting a case for handling malnutrition and not agricultural production and adjectives likes ‘great’ are too good to be trusted…OUT

    (d) Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India…..The passage is trying to relate production and storage with hunger and malnutrition and not discussing welfare programmes….OUT

    Thus the only option that fits the bill is option (a) and is the answer.

    [Passage 28] The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the read snaps, the pearls are scattered.

    Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?

    (a) A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong

    (b) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity

    (c) A strong Centre is a hindrance to State autonomy

    (d) State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation

    Solution:

    The passage is in the form of figurative speech whether the author is stating that without the thread pearls shall get scattered and that the centre is a binding form to keep them together. This view is presented in option (b). The other options can be ruled out as the passage is not discussing about State autonomy or strength of federation. Thus the answer is option (b):

    (b) A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity

    [Passage 29] Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he, and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every man that is to live under a government ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government, and I do think that the poorest man in England is not at all bound in a strict sense to that government that he has not had a voice to put himself under.

    The above statement argues for

    (a) distribution of wealth equally to all

    (b) rule according to the consent of the governed

    (c) rule of the poor

    (d) expropriation of the rich

    Solution:

    The passage goes on to claim that ‘poorest man’, the representative of the governed used by the author, should be governed by those who have been chosen by the those being governed. Hence the option choice (b) is the right answer. Expropriation of rich, rule by poor and distribution of wealth to all is not what the passage is implying.

    (b) rule according to the consent of the governed

    * * * * * * *

    After this lengthy blog, here is the list of takeaways

    1. Read all answer choices even if you think a particular option is correct

    2. The passages are pretty easy. Get over the dread

    3. At least two option choices in many passages are clearly wrong. Rule them out first

    4. Summing up the passage in our words helps a ton

    5. Few of the above passages have already appeared in previous year NDA/CDS exams. Therefore, there is no harm in practicing on the passages of past 4-5 years of CDS and NDA papers.

    6. The passages are getting more diverse but still, you shall find some sitting ducks. Shoot them first

    7. Answer the question as per the information in the passage. What you already know may not be in consonance with what the passage proffers but what matters is that you answer the question as per the passage only

    8. Use elimination of choices to zero in on the answer choice. It is quite effective, especially in comprehension tests

    9. When you have to decide between two options, choose the one where the words used are same as those used in the passage

    10. Only 33% percent marks are required to qualify CSAT, Paper II. Still attempt all questions you correctly and confidently attempt

    11. Do not take CSAT, Paper II for granted. The cake-walk may morph into quick-sand

    So this is Good-Bye and Good Luck for now!

  • 04 Feb 2018 | Target Mains | 23th Weekly Test

     

    Q.1)  India’s richest 1% garnered as much as 73% of the total wealth generated in the country in 2017, according to a new survey by international rights group Oxfam. Discuss What will be the consequences of rising income inequality in India.?

    Q.2) What do you understand by Solar rooftops. Discuss rationale behind its installation. Recent data indicates that in India, against the target of 10,000 MW generation of electricity using solar rooftops by March 31, 2018, the achievement as of the last day of 2017 is 923 MW. Discuss reasons behind this slow progress and also steps required to give boost to solar rooftops.?

    Q.3) It is commented that India’s New Australia Group Admission will pave the way for its entry in the much coveted NSG. Do you agree. Critically examine?

    Q.4) In the wake of anti-globalization and protectionist measures in major destination markets, shouldn’t India focus on enhancing mode 2 exports instead of mode 1 and mode 4 service exports. Critically discuss

    Q.5) In recently released report Nasa says that earth’s global surface temperature in 2017 is second warmest since 1880. In this context discuss how rise in temperature in future will have adverse effect on India’s economy, politics, society and environment.

    Q.6) Do you think The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2017, will be able to make our roads safe. Critically discuss.

    Q.7) Without states active involvement in unleashing Agriculture reforms, doubling of farmer’s income by 2022 is a herculean task. Discuss

    Q.8) The role of legislators is critical in a democracy. They are elected by citizens, and they act as a bulwark against autocratic actions of the executive. In the light of the above statement critically examine the recent decision of EC to disqualify 20 MLA’s of AAP.

    Q.9) What do you understand by coking coal. Despite having World’s 4th largest coal reserves why do India import coking coal.?

    Q.10) Intense engagement of Government with industry and private sector player are an invaluable and inseparable part of nation’s cyber security strategy. Examine the above statement in the light of launch of Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative by Government recently?

  • 28 Jan 2018 | Target Mains | 22th Weekly Test

    Q.1) PM Netyanhu described India-Israel relations as that of Marriage made in heaven. Despite the excellent Personal chemistry between the 2 Prime Minister’s, there are number of sticking points which are preventing relationship between both these countries to reach its potential. Discuss those inhibiting factors and suggest steps which can make way for this relationship to reach its potential.

    Q.2) What do you understand by de-hyphenated foreign policy? Is India right in following De-hyphenated foreign policy with respect to West Asia. Critically examine.

    Q.3) Given the current situation in India, Fiscal stimulus would only lead to crowding out effect in India with no effect on real GDP. Critically analyse

    Q.4) The minimum wages doesn’t satisfies original intentions i.e. elimination of poverty and it tends to reduce employment and family income. Critically discuss the statement in the context of proposed wage code bill?

    Q.5) What do you understand by Agri-Futures? It is commented that Agri-future can help smoothen the typical boom and bust problem in agri-prices.

    Q.6) ASER report 2018  indicates that legacy of learning deficit visible so far in elementary school children is now being reflected among young adults too. What are the reasons behind this trend? Also suggest innovative methods India can adopt to improve the learning outcomes in school?

    Q.7) Indian population is growing much faster in the north and south is paying the price. Comment

    Q.8) Do you think secular state like India should not give any pilgrimage subsidy? Critically discuss in the context of recent abolition of Haj subsidy by the central Government.

    Q.9) Discuss the contribution of Indian army in WW1?

    Q.10) Discuss the significance and concerns of 5th successful test-firing of the long-range ballistic missile Agni-V for India?

     

     

     

  • 21 Jan 2018 | Target Mains | 21th Weekly Test

    Q.1) Recently the government has approved the norms to relax the norms of FDI in single-brand retail. Discuss the pros and cons.

    Q.2) With the emergence of the market economy and enhanced capability of private sector, the government should not directly be in the business of providing goods and services. Discuss in the context of Recent proposal of the government to Privatize Air India.

    Q.3) Critically analyse the SC’s decision of making it optional for cinema halls to play the national anthem in cinema halls.

    Q.4) The SC has decided to revisit its earlier decision of criminalizing homosexuality. Do you think it is an infringement on the fundamental rights of citizens and the citizens should be given choice to make their own personal decisions? Also analyse what changes will decriminalizing homosexuality lead to?

    Q.5) What is surface ozone? How is it formed? Discuss the consequences of increasing level of surface ozone for the environment? What steps should be taken to bring down its increasing level?

    Q.6) Given Pakistan’s continuous support to terrorists and frequent breach of ceasefire along LOC, should India revoke Most favoured nation status given to Pakistan to send a strong message to Pakistan. Critically discuss

    Q.7) There appears to be no rational basis for how mandatory local content requirements contribute towards promoting the use of clean energy. In the light of the above statement, Critically examine India’s stand in the Indo-USA solar dispute in WTO.?

    Q.8) It is in India’s self-interest to ratify UN convention against torture. Critically discuss

    Q.9) Breach of Privacy concern and denial of service has always been associated with Aadhar. Discuss how newly introduced features like Virtual ID and Facial recognition will address these concerns.?

    Q.10) What do you understand by particularly vulnerable tribal group? Discuss key problems being faced by this group?

  • 14 Jan 2018 | Target Mains | 20th Weekly Test

    Q.1) While We have been successfully able to curb insurgency in most North-Eastern states, however even after 70 years of independence we have not able to eradicate Insurgency in Nagaland? Discuss reason behind this phenomenon and What steps should be adopted by Government to eradicate insurgency in Nagaland.

    Q.2) What economic policy challenges are India facing currently and how can these challenges be tackled.

    Q.3) Experts have opined that despite being the world’s largest producer, with 155.5 million tonne of milk produced in 2015-16, the dairy sector is by and large in the primitive stage of development and modernisation.  discuss?

    Q.4) Without improving regulatory frameworks for greater transparency in the finances of political parties’ Electoral bonds are a half measure at best. Critically analyse

    Source: http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/SbI5rJDU0I4TWnTFPqSP3H/Electoral-bonds-are-a-half-measure-at-best.html

    Q.5) In the recent years Bitcoins are gaining popularity in India and the world. Discuss reasons behind its increasing popularity, also mention the concerns associated with it.

      Q.6) Recently the oil ministry has announced that it plans to set up bio-CNG (compressed natural gas) plants   and allied infrastructure? In the light of the above statement explain What do you understand by Bio-CNG. Also discuss the rationale for India to promote production of Bio-CNG.

    Q.7) Allowing an exception for “public works” will open a Pandora’s Box, and it will be all but impossible for the National Monuments Authority or the Archaeological Survey of India to ensure that such construction do not pose a threat to a monument. In the light of the above statement critically discuss the key features of the Recently passed (AMASR) amendment bill.

    Q.8) caste conflict in Bhima Koregaon in Maharashtra recently is indicative of the larger issues of caste oppression and sub-nationalism. Comment

    Source: https://scroll.in/article/863644/underlying-maharashtras-dalit-protests-a-tangle-of-old-caste-struggles-and-new-hindutva-assertion

    https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/aspirations-as-dalits-martial-memories/articleshow/62359684.cms

    Q.9) Given the fact that India is a land of diverse languages with no national language. Is there a rationale behind Current Government’s push towards inclusion of Hindi as one of the official languages at United Nations? Critically examine

    Q.10) Write a note on India’s Ballistic Missile Defence system and its need?