Author: Dr V

1. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?

1. The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India
2. The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in India
3. The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman, are final and binding on the parties concerned
4. The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee

• This was in news around that time.
• If you don’t know anything, option c and do look suspect as generally there is an appellate mechanism and there can be some fee.
• And yes there is an appellate mechanism and appellate authority is one of the deputy governor of RBI.

Learning – salient provisions of banking ombudsman act, Banking regulation act

2. With reference to India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

• See financial inclusion is an oft repeated topic
• Common sense will tell you, RRB will provide banking to rural areas, so will 3rd option so financial inclusion
• Nationalisation was done so that credit can be provided to rural areas, low income segments

3. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference / differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is / are:

1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed,
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

• Only in 3rd statement, red flag, pause and think. Obviously GI can also be assigned to manufactured goods, even natural products etc. Eliminate it. Now we only have to look at option 2
• You know trade mark is a private property so private party can license it to the 3rd party while GI is community property hence can not be licensed to 3rd party.
• In any case GO is due to particular geography, how can a manufacturer from other geography get GI status

Learning – TRIPS, TRIPS plus, public health safeguards under TRIPS, parallel imports, compulsory licensing

4. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following :

1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

• SEZ act came into force in 2006 but question in prelims in 2009 and in mains this year. Why- act keep getting amended. Always in news for all good and bad reasons
• Statement 3, only, red flag, pause and think. Obviously wrong. Promotion of services was the only objective. Special services zone would have been the name. Eliminate 3. You get to the answer

Learning– SEZ act, NIMZ, Make in INDIA, industrial and freight corridors

5. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?

1. It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
2. It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
3. It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
4. It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time

Simple. Fall in prices

Learning – Deflation v/s disinflation, recession v/s depression

6. With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements :

1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• 2nd is what differentiates them from banks
• Obviously institutions other than banks including FII do acquire govt securities so no bar on nbfc

Learning – banks v/s NBFC, types of NBFCs, shadow banking

7. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003?

1. Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
2. Non – borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances
3. Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
4. Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP

• Even if you don’t remember all the details you know zero RD, 3% FD. Nothing about primary. You will reach the answer.
• FRBM always in news as govt keeps amending the act

Learning – Revised FRBM targets, statements to be presented under FRBM

8. In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes

1. An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
2. An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise
3. A shareholder or a bondholder who has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise
4. Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond

• Bear bull easy
• Bear is bearish, thinks market will go down. Price if shares will fall

Learning– share market terminology- bear, bull, capitalisation, blue chips, exchange traded funds, short selling

9. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?     .

1. India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
2. India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
3. Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
4. Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India

• Simple DATA
• 1, 3 and 4 are bogus options

Learning- DTAA and BEPS, round tripping of money, shell companies and Panama papers, SIT on DTAA, India Mauritius DTAA v/s India Singapore DTAA, B/L investment promotion and protection treaty

10. Consider the following countries:

1. Brazil
2. Mexico
3. South Africa

According to UNCTAD, which of the above is /are categorized as “Emerging Economies”?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

All are emerging. We hear about them everyday. Even if you don’t know the answer, it’s good to make a guess here

Learning – definition of LDC, emerging economies, reports of UNCTAD

11. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements :

1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 3 and 4
4. 3 only

• 2 is definitely incorrect. It’s kept I’m public accounts. Eliminate it.
• Look at 4 now. It’s correct.
• withdrawl of funds from NIF was changed in the wake of financial crisis of 2008, hence the question

Learning – NIF, consolidated fund of INDIA v/s public accounts of INDIA, Charged v/s non charged expenditure, divestment v/s strategic sale

12  In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?

1. Currency Futures Trading
2. Commodities Futures Trading
3. Equity Futures Trading
4. Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading

• Confusion b/w b and d but think, SEBI will regulate financial futures
• You can also remember that FMC was under consumer affairs ministry till very recently so how can it regulate financial futures

Learning- FMC-SEBI merger, forward v/s futures, derivatives, FSLRC salient recommendations, insurance amendment act

13. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

  Term          Most appropriate description

1. Melt down     Fall in stock prices

2 Recession     Fall in growth rate

3. Slowdown     Fall in GDP

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Recession is negative growth rate that is fall in GDP. so 2 and 3 are interchanged answer 1 only

Learning – recession v/s depression v/s double dip recession v/s slow down, Disinflation v/s deflation

 

14. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?

1. Service tax
2. Personal income tax
3. Excise duty
4. Corporation tax

• You know the share. Corporation is maximum followed by income tax.
• Service tax was introduced very late so it’s share would obviously increase.
• Answer is obvious now.

Learning – share of different taxes in ascending- descending order, FC recommendations, cess – surcharge

15. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following:

1. Reduction of poverty
2. Extension of employment opportunities
3. Strengthening of capital market
4. Reduction of gender inequality

• Many questions from inclusive tax
• It’s clear strengthening of capital market does not automatically includes everyone.
• Other 3 options obviously do

Learning – inclusive growth strategies, schemes for women, children, minorities

16. Consider the following actions by the Government:

1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies

In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the “fiscal stimulus” package?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

• Question again from fiscal stimulus. It’s always in the news consolidation or stimulus
• Stimulus is slash taxes, increase expenditure
• 3rd is obviously incorrect.

Learning – fiscal consolidation, new FRBM targets

17. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?

1. The commercial banks will have less money to lend
2. The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
3. The Union Government will have less money to lend
4. The commercial banks will have more money to lend

• A nd D contradictory, one has to be true
• Less to be kept aside as reserve . Banks will have more money to lend.
• Obviously union govt is not a bank which will do lending business

18. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements:

1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries.
2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• 2 is easily incorrect. China’s population is not more than 200 million more than India. Brazil would be easily more than 200m
• 1st option is very dicey. This would be GDP at market exchange rate. But think China is some 5 times of INDIA at present . Both Russia and Brazil are behind India. So make your guess
• No idea about 2010

Learning – 1st and latest brics summit location, BRICS bank, CRA, AIIB

19. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administered by the

1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
2. International Fund for Agricultural Development
3. United Nations Development Programme
4. United Nations Industrial Development Organization

It’s part of world bank group so IBRD

learning – parts of WB group, criteria for IDA financing, India and IDA

20. Consider the following statements:

 In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are

1. Levied by the Union
2. Collected by the State .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only  
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

How can states tax transactions in stock exchanges. How would all 29 states do that.

Learning – taxes levied by whom, collected by whom, accrue to whom. Learn from Laxmikant, gross tax revenue v/s net tax revenue, tax expenditure

21. Consider the following statements:

1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Many questions on minimum prices and ECA.
• You know the concept of FRP and SAP.
• Sugar as hell would be an essential commodity. If sugar is so would be the sugarcane

Learning– MSP, CACP, Essential commodities act, FRP, SAP, CCEA

22. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?

1. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
4. Bank for International Settlements

You know the 1st 3 are part of world bank group. Odd one out that is 4th would be the answer

Learning – World bank group, BIS, Basel accord

23. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?

1. Codex Alimentarius Commission
2. International Federation of Standards Users
3. International Organization for Standardization
4. World Standards Cooperation

Food safety, name itself suggest codex alimentarius would be it – alimentarius – elementary canal

Learning – Sanitary and phyto sanitary measure,SPS,  Technical barriers to trade, TBT, FSSAI, Food safety act

24. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years.
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• For GDP to double, country has to grow by 10% for some 7 years. Even then it would take 20 years to grow 4 times. Obviously incorrect
• 2nd can be correct. 10% is reasonable. Contribution of public sector is constantly going down but you may not be sure. Make a guess. I have no idea. Just google it

25. In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by

1. Union Ministry of Finance
2. Union Finance Commission
3. Indian Banks’ Association
4. None of the above

Saving rates are deregulated

Learning – Base rate, benchmark prime lending rate, base rate bases on marginal cost of funding, current account v/s saving account

26. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index – for Industrial Workers CPI (IW), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• 2nd is obviously correct
• Only in 1st, red flag, pause and think. Yes it’s correct. It’s only monthly  why would it be announced monthly as well as weekly. If you announce it weekly, you can calculate monthly from that

Learning -CPI, WPI maximum weight to particular items?, food product inflation v/s food article inflation, divergence b/w CPI and WPI, different varieties of CPI, monetary anchor in India

27. In the context of governance, consider the following:

1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 3 and 4 only

• Fiscal deficit again
• Reduce expenditure, increase taxes
• 3 reduces expenditure as less wages, 4th generate capital receipt.
• B/w b and D,  look at statement 2
• Privatization of education, cuts subsidy on education , reduces FD

Learning – latest fiscal, revenue, primary deficit, revised FRBM targets

28. In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in

1. Fourth Plan
2. Sixth Plan
3. Eighth Plan
4. Tenth Plan

• 6th plan – infra
• Do check again though

Learning–  pointers about every 5 year plan

29. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?

1. Partners should be less than 20
2. Partnership and management need not be separate
3. Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners
4. It is corporate body with perpetual succession

• There is no limit to partners. Minimum is 2.
• LLP is hybrid of partnership and corporation. B, c and d are characterstics of partnership.

Learning-:LLP, Joint liability group, private Ltd company v/s public limited company, new companies act

30.Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?

1. Cash Credit Ratio
2. Debt Service Obligation
3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility
4. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

In SLR, they hold govt securities thus provide credit to govt

Learning – financial repression, double financial repression, treasury bonds v/s treasury bills, state development loans

30. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently?

1. United Nations Environment Programme
2. World Trade Organization
3. ASEAN – India Free Trade Agreement
4. G – 20 Summits

• Terms, agreements
• SSM – WTO
• details in the WTO article I wrote

Learning – SSM, Special products SP, special and differential treatment, S&D, SSM v/s safeguard duties, anti dumping v/s countervailing duty

P.S. – Analysis of pre 2009 and CAPF 2016 economy will be posted in next article

Pre 2011

1. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?

(a.) 1 only

(b.) 2 only

(c.) Both 1 and 2

(d.) Neither 1 nor 2

• Vote on account is passed every year, used by both regular and caretaker govt
• Vote on account deals only with expenditure while interim budget both revenue and expenditure <see titbits for more>

Learnings – Can’t repeat enough, learn passage of budget

2. In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to LokSabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a.) 1 only

(b.) 2 and 3 only’

(c.) 1 and 3 only

(d.) 1, 2 and 3

2 is obviously wrong, there is no communal representation, seats in LS for anglo indians that too not automatic

Learning – Learns FRs by heart

3. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India must come from:

(a.) The President of India

(b.) The Parliament of India

(c.) The Prime. Minister of India

(d.) The Union Finance, Minister

REpeated infinite times, parliamentary approval required, president recommendation before introducing the money bill

Learning – Learn 3 funds, CFI, Contingency, Public accounts , Parliamentary control over finances

4. All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the:

(a.) Contingency Fund of India

(b.) Public Account

(c.) Consolidated Fund of India

(d.) Deposits and Advances Fund

Internal repeat, Everything goes and comes out of Consolidated fund of India

5. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the LokSabha 

(a.) the Budget is modified and presented again

(b.) the Budget is referred to the RajyaSabha for suggestions

(c.) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,

(d.) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Simple resignation, money bill rejected, govt resigns

Learning – Passage of Budget

6. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a.) To vote in public elections

(b.) To develop the scientific temper

(c.) To safeguard public property

(d.) To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals

Repeated ad nauseam, voting not a FD

7. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a.) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

(b.) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings

(c.) It ensures transparency in financial administration

(d.) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

FC repeated, it deals with distribution of taxes b/w union and states

Learning – Role of FC, FCv/s PC, article 275, 282 and 280

8. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

(a.) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

(b.) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households

(c.) Adult members of households of all backward communities

(d.) Adult members of any household

There is no BPL/APl, SC/ST, though ⅓ should go to women, it should be adult member of rural households

9. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a.) 1 only

(b.) 1 and 2 only

(c.) 2 and 3 only

(d.) 1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 are easily correct. Statement 1 is very tricky as DPC is under 74th amendment

Learning – Evolution of local planning <MAyo, Rippon to 3 committees post independence>, Mandatory v/s optional provisions, schedule 11 and 12

10. Consider the following statements :

In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a.) 1 and 2 only

(b.) 2 only

(c.) 1 and 3 only

(d.) 1, 2 and 3

Similar to DPC. Statement 3, sole responsibility gives it away. Can not be the only body responsible for development. 1nd 2 easily correct

Learning – DPC and MPC

11. Consider the following :

1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

(a.) 1 only

(b.) 1 and 2 only

(c.) 3 only

(d.) 1, 2 and 3

Obviously all are human rights

Pre 2010

1. .With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:

1. Fundamental Rights
2.  Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Repeated infinite times, social assistance = welfare = socio economic democracy = DPSP

2. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

1. The President of India
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. The Prime Minister of India
4. The Union Finance Minister

• Repeated again – FC, UPSC, CAG, NVSC, NCST etc submit reports to president who cause them to be laid before parliament.
• On the other hand in case of committees of parliament like PAC, chairperson submits report to the house

3. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?

1. Department of Revenue
2. Department of Economic Affairs
3. Department of Financial Services
4. Department of Expenditure

Repeated in 2015,

4,Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

1. District Planning Committees
2. State Finance Commission
3. Finance Ministry of that State
4. Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

Simple – Repeat, Role of Finance commission is to distribute taxes. Observe that DPC was asked next year in other format

5. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

1. Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court
2. Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
3. Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
4. None of the statements given above is correct

• Why not pending cases, in fact courts encourage mediation and ADR. 3rd statement only gives it away. Even petty criminal cases can be tried here <compoundable offences>
• Imp.- Order can not be challenged in any court of law once it has been accepted by both the party

Learning – Lok Adalat, Gram Nyayalay, ADR, Arbitration amendment act

6. .With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

1. A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
2. One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
3. The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
4. A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be tiled with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general

Repeated question from consumer protection act

Learning – Consumer protection act, amendment, FSSAI

7. .With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:

1. The Right to Development

2. The Right to Expression

3. The Right to Recreation.

Which of the above is / are the Rights of the child?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

All are rights . Common sense. Earlier question on human right was asked

8.The ”Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Extent of executive power of State
4. Conduct of business of the Government of India

Repaeted an nauseum

9. Consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2

Obviously only if he seeks. Then too only in case is supreme court bound to tender advice

Learning  Original and advisory jurisdiction

Pre 2009

1.  If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

1. 1 month     
2. 3 months
3. 6 months     
4. 1 year

Learning – Compulsory and optional provision of 73rd and 74th amendment including reservation requirement

2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh

2 The Governor of Kerala is’ concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. 1,2 and 3

Covered in titbits

3.Consider the following statements:

1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

1. 1 only     
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2     
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Why would advocate general be appointed by president, he is appointed by governor, fired by governor. <high court judges are appointed and removed by president>. Ad G is employee of state govt
• High courts have no advisory jurisdiction

Learning – Repeated ad nauseum, Original and advisory jurisdiction of courts , writ of high court v/s supreme court

4. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?

1. Calcutta
2. Madras
3. Bombay     
4. Delhi

Learning – evolution of Local Bodies, 1st Panchayat in nagaur, rajasthan

5. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only     
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2     

Family disputes are commonly resolved. Lok adalat repeated next year

6.  With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only     
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2     
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Repeat, can be member of either house or become member in 6 months. Cabinet secretariat is not concerned with parliament so why with Ministry of parliamentary affairs but with
• Questions related to cabinet secretariat and cabinet secretary repeated

7.  Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?

1. 90th     
2. 91st
3. 92nd     
4. 93rd

91st, amendment of anti defection law

Learning – 10th schedule, repeated again and again

8. Consider the following statements:

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Minister ship of Lal Bahadur Shastri.

2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

Which of the statements given above is are correct?

1. 1 only     
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2     
4. Neither 1 nor 2

CAT with 42nd amendment act i.e Indira Gandhi, 2nd is obviously true

Learn – CAT, Jurisdiction, Appeal against CAT decision

9. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.

2 The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

Which of the statements given above is are correct?

1. 1 only     
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2     
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Obviously rubbish question

10. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:

1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.

2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. 1 only     
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2     
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Obviously even ministries would then be created by President on advice of Pm

11.  In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?

1. Prime Minister
2. Minister of Water Resources
3. Minister of Environment and Forests
4. Minister of Science and Technology

Learning – PM is chairperson of ???? councils / bodies

12. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?

1. Prime Minister’s Office
2. Cabinet Secretariat
3. Ministry of Power
4. Ministry of Science and Technology

Learning – PMO and cabinet secretariat

Prelims 2013

1. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

1. directly elected by the people of those Provinces
2. nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
3. elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
4. selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Easy question, Read in modern history. They were elected by provincial assemblies, princes nominated them.

Learning – Evolution of constitutional scheme esp. Morley Minto, GOI act 1919, GOI act 1935, Cabinet mission plan, Constituent assembly, interim govt and interim parliament <cabinet mission has been asked infinite times>

2. ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in

1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
4. None of the above

Repeat question.

Preamble – justice -social, economic and political, DPSP is all about socio economic democracy, welfare state

Learning – Can’t repeat, learn DPSP, FRs, FDs, Preamble by heart

3. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Repeat. DPSPs like instrument of instruction of GOI 1935. Not enforceable but fundamental to governance

Learning – can’t repeat enough but FRs v/s DPSP , Conflict b/w FRs and DPSPs

4. Consider the following statements

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Indirect Repeat – Primacy of RS v/s LS, LS prevails only in cases of money bill and type 1 financial bill and in ordinary bill in joint sittings. CAB can be introduced in either house but not in states
• Statement 2, all gives it away, consent of half the states is required

Learning – Repeating again primacy of LS v/s RS, passage of different bills, Art 368, cases where assent of states required, amendments not considered under article 368, Parliamentary legislation on state list 

5. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

• Repeat. All 3 options repeated.
• Statement 3 is wrong. Cabinet headed by PM, remove it and answer. Actions taken in the name of President. Statement 1 repeat, Cabinet members of legislature , ministers responsible to LS (not parliament )

Learning – Presidential v/s parliamentary system, Cabinet v/s CoM, different categories of ministers

6. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.

1. only 1
2. only 2 and 3
3. only 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Internal repeat <same paper> right.

CoM responsible to LS not parliament. Eliminate it, you get the answer. Yes pleasure but PM recommends when to remove the pleasure. Statement 2 is too innocuous to be false.

Learning – Solve question papers, read titbits

7. Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3 only

• Option 4 is obviously incorrect as only members can vote <even VP can’t vote as he is not a member >.
• Doubt rests on statement 2 as it’s obvious if he can sit in the house, he would not sit there to observe, he can observe on the TV. Obviously he would sit there to speak if required.
• Whoever can take part in proceeding can be a member but without again right to vote

Learning – AG qualification, appointment, removal, reference to AG

8. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
2. The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
3. No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
4. In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

• Option 3 common knowledge – Governor till pleasure of president. But it’s a difficult question if you don’t directly reach this option.
• Can be appointed governor of 2 states, in fact even LG of UTs, High court judges appointed as well as removed by president, CM appointed by President not LG <in states governor appoint>

Learning – again Discretionary powers of governor appointment and removal, LG v/s governor, Qualification, Appointment and Removal of Judges

9. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

1. with the consent of all the States
2. with the consent of the majority of States
3. with the consent of the States concerned
4. without the consent of any State

Common sense – India is not that federal to require state permission here

Learning – Instances where parliament can make laws on state list with or without their permission <discussed in titbits>. Has been asked multiple times i.e Parliamentary legislation on state list

10. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)

1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of Government
3. Examines the report of CAG.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? `

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Repeat. Only Committee on estimates has members only of LS. All others have members both of LS and RS. Isn’t it clear from the name it would scrutinize accounts. Statement 2 correct, 1 incorrect

Learning – Again committees are imp. 3 committee , PAC, CoE, CoPU. Appointment, removal and independence of CAG. Types of audits conducted by CAG

11.  Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Chairman VP not a member, Vice Chairman from amongst the members
• Presidential election – Only elected members of both the houses plus legislative assemblies, VP election – all the members of both the houses

Learning – Powers, appointment and removal of chairperson and speaker, Appointment and removal of President and VP <discussed in titbits>

13.  What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

1. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
2. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
3. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
4. The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Repeated n number of times. RS can’t amend the money bill.

Learning – Money bill v.s finance bill. Passage of different bills. Primacy of LS v/s RS

14.  Consider the following statements:

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

• NDC and PC have been abolished now. NDC used to advise PC on planning and included all CMs and union ministers etc. Eliminate statement 1, only option left
• Statement 2 and 3 are common sense, planning has to be in the concurrent list

Learning – Niti Ayog

15. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

What would chairperson FC would do? FC is not involved in planning. Repeated question next year.

Learning – FC, Niti Ayog

16. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

NDC and PC easily incorrect. Even zonal councils aren’t in the constitution <they are statutory>

Learning – Inter state council, Zonal Council

17. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

1. To provide self-governance
2. To recognize traditional rights
3. To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
4. To free tribal people from exploitation

• Common sense – Panchayat is for self governance so 1st has to be correct. 5th schedule and 6th schedule has been asked multiple times and 6th schedule is create autonomous region, so option 3 has to be incorrect.
• Also option 2 and 4 would have to be correct or incorrect simultaneously as recognize their traditional rights, you free them of exploitation

18. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

1. State Forest Department
2. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
3. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer
4. Gram Sabha

FRA is addition to PESA. So obviously community i.e Gram Sabha would do it.

Learning – PESA v/s FRA

19.  With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

General knowledge. Appear true. NLSA act 1987. But if you didn’t know, you could mark it incorrect thinking may be not free but at low cost. But remember free legal aid is DPSP.

• Bottom line – 10/18 absolute joke
• 4/18 Tricky – AG being member of Committee, Election of president and VP, no procedure for removal of Governor, Zonal council not constitution
• NLSA, FRA, NDC require some limited knowledge

Learning – UPSC asks a lot of questions from a few topics every year which are doable

Pre 2012

1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution – CAG is asked again and again.

• 4th is clearly wrong as obviously only judiciary can prosecute people not CAG or other bodies not even Human rights commission
• Only options 2 and 3 left i.e statement 3, Cummon information from any imp report can be used to press charges. Judiciary will determine if charges stick or not <it was the time of 2g scam>
• CAG -PAC asked multiple times,
• CAG only audits, he is not comptroller in INdia <statement 1 is wrong>

Learning – Reading options carefully, applying brain , Again role of CAG, types of audits

2. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: 

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the” Houses within six months

(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the LokSabha within six months

(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament

(d) must be a member of the LokSabha

Manmohan Singh was from RS. Ministers can be from either house so can the PM. Ministers can become members w/i 6 months so can PM.

Learning – Qualification. Disqualification to be elected to LS and RS including recent SC judgement (section 8 (4))

3. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the LokSabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

You must know oudelimitation commission. Both are true

Learning – Delimitation commission, composition, powers, last delimitation, next delimitation 

4. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3rd is obviously incorrect as committee’s report is tabled by the chairperson of the committee. Other 3 bodies would submit the report to president.

Learning – NCSC – role wrt to OBC and Anglo Indians, UPSC – appointment and removal of members ,  independence of UPSC

5. A deadlock between the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Has been repeated infinite times. Money bill no role of RS. CAB has to be passed separately by both houses with special majority

6. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• Repeated n number of times .
• Protecting weaker sections is DPSP not FD

7. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• 2nd option is obviously incorrect as President removes judges. Repeated ad nauseum that both high court and supreme court judges are appointed and removed by president. 1 is definitely correct, even before 4 judges case <art 124> both in case of supreme court and high court
• Answer is clear from above. But what about statement 4 – very conveniently reversed, CJI appoints after consulting president not the other way around

Learning — Appointment, removal. Independence of judiciary

8. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

(c) Government of India Act, 1935

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Repeated many times. GOI act 1935, 3 lists, provincial autonomy

Learning – all 4 acts mentioned in the options, Cabinet mission plan

9. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

• Didn’t i say if 3 motions are to be learned – No Confidence, adjournment and calling attention
• Definite matter of urgent public importance, only in LS, extraordinary device, direct or indirect failure on the part of govt 

Learning – Learn all 3 motions, Primacy of LS v/s RS

10. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India 

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

How many times will they repeat DPSP. But here they asked Gandhian  2 and 3 are obvious. UCC clearly isn’t Gandhian but liberal.

Reading – Learn DPSPs. FDs, FRs, Preamble by heart plus broad classification of DPSP <covered in titbits>

11. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the RajyaSabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None

We know Delhi is represented in RS. 3rd statement, only gives it away, president is also part of parliament, has to sign bills for them to become act. You can mark even if you don’t know about statement 2. What bout election dispute? Answer in comments please

Learning – Election Commission appointment, removal and independence, Election disputes

12. Regarding the office of the LokSabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

• 3rd is so innocuous has to be correct, deputy writes to speaker, speaker writes to deputy. We know the removal procedure, has been asked multiple times (effective majority). Even if you don’t know about option 2, you can mark it correct.
• Has to be a member as he has to conduct the proceedings unlike minister who can function without being present in the house.

13. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Repeat – Original jurisdiction. Original meaning originating in the supreme court, not on appeal. So obviously federal provisions i.e 1 and 4 <UT is not under federal relationship>

Learning – Writ of SC v/s high court, Original and advisory jurisdiction of SC

14. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Repeat. 2 is definitely incorrect, Morley Minto introduced it. Statement 3 would be the clincher. If there was dyarchy meaning some powers to elected ministers so definitely some legislative authority also <autonomy in 1935 only>

Learning – Repeating nth time, 3 acts plus cabinet mission

15. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the RajyaSabha by the Constitution of India? 

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Simple

Learning – Repeating nth time Primacy of LS v.s RS

16. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

• DPSP – Early Childhood care and education, Rural and Urban – Primary education,  7th schedule- 3 lists, education in concurrent
• 5th and 6th schedule deals with schedule and tribal areas. No direct relationship to education

Learning – Learn all schedules, DPSPs

17. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

There is no Parliamentary Budget Office in INdia

Learning – Passage of Budget, 3 Statements consequent to FRBM act

18. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• PESA and FRA repeated again next year. Look at the statement 3, any gives it away. If under statement 2, Gram sabha has ownership over Minor forest produce, how is it possible for gram sabha to have ownership over any mineral. It should also be minor mineral, right.  Any is too sweeping. Pause and Think.
• Statement 1 is obviously correct

Learning – PESA and FRA

19. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

1 is obviously correct, seems correct.  What has NGT to do with scheduled areas, gram sabha etc. It’s for all India.

20. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

You must know about this. Earlier we learnt free legal aid under NLSA but here it’s not free. 3 can not be wrong so answer 1 and 3 <in the next blog you would know that question related to consumer protection act had been asked earlier, importance of solving question papers>

Learning – Consumer protection act, amendment proposed, Food safety laws, FSSAI

Bottom Line – Most of the questions absolute joke

1. Most imp. Articles of Constitution

1. Art 2 – admission or establishment of new states <earlier not states, Sikkim for instance>
2. Art 3 – formation or changes in the  existing states <Telangana for instance>
3. Art 51 A – 11 fundamental duties
4. Art 72 – Pardoning power of president
5. Art 108 – Definition of money bill
6. Art 112 – annual Financial statement (BUdget)
7. Art 123 – Ordinance by President, 213 – By governor
8. Art 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction
9. Art 226 High court writ, 32 supreme court writes
10. Art 335 – Claims of SC & ST to services
11. Article 350 A -instruction in the mother tongue at local level
12. Art 351 – Duty of Union to promote spread of Hindi Language

Note – Articles of FRs should be learned by heart.

• Discuss – Pardoning powers of president v/s governor
• Discuss – Federal safeguards under article 3
• Discuss – Berubari Union case and article 2 and 3

2. Article 355, 356 and 365

1. Art 355 – Duty of the Union to protect States against any external aggression and the internal disturbance and ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution

2. Art 356 : President’s rule in the event of failure of constitutional machinery

3. Art 365 : Failure of state to comply with the directives of the Union

So because it is Union’s responsibility under article 355 to see to it that Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution, President imposes President’s rule on two grounds – art 356 and art 365

Issues related to emergency have been discussed in detail in this blog and in this tit- bit

3. Most imp. Constitutional Amendments

1. 1st amendment – 9th schedule
2. 7th amendment -Abolished 4 fold classification of states, extended jurisdiction of high courts to UTs, Common high courts for >1 states
3. 24th – Compulsory for president to give assent to CABs
4. 42nd – Mini constitution, added FDs <Swaran Singh Committee>, 3 new words -socialist, secular and integrity to the preamble , Tribunals
5. 44th – Abolished right to property, Internal disturbance replaced by armed rebellion under article 352, National emergency only on written recommendation of president <only use of the word cabinet in the constitution>
6. 52 – 10th schedule, anti defection law
7. 91st – anti defection law amended, not >15% of LSin CoM
8. 80th – Alternate scheme of devolution, all taxes except cess and surcharges to be shared b/w union and states
9. 97th Cooperative societies
10. 100th Land boundary agreement b/w India and B’desh

• Discuss – Amendment of anti defection law by 91st amendment
• Discuss – Kihoto Hollohan judgement
• Discuss -Whether or not cooperative societies under RTI

4. Bills with prior recommendation of President

1. 1. Bill that seek to alter the boundaries of the states and names of the states. (Article 3)
2. 2. Money Bill (Article 110) & Finance Bill type 1
3. 3. Any bill which affects the taxation in which the states are interested (Article 274)
4. 4. State Bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade (Article 304).
5. 5. Any matter relating to a law for acquisition by the state of any ‘estate’ or other intermediate interest in land means matters relating to article 31(A)

Bill involving expenditure from consolidated fund of India but not a money bill i.e Finance bill type 2 do not require recommendation while introducing but recommendation s necessary before bill is taken up for passage

• Discuss – Parliament can not propose increase in taxes but can propose reduction
• Discuss – Appropriation bill can not be amended but Finance bill can be

5. Random Trivia

• NHRC is the only body whose chairperson has to be retired CJI and in state HRC, retired Chief Justice of high Court <any exception?>
• In every appointment, where a committee appoints members of constitutional and statutory bodies, PM and LoP (LS) always are the members

1. 1. NHRC – 6 member committee (2 + Speaker LS, Deputy CP RS , LoP, RS, Home Minister)
2. 2. CVC – 3 member committee (2 + home minister)
3. 3. CIC – 3 member committee (2 + any cabinet minister nominated by PM)
4. 4. Director CBI – (2+ CJI)

• Discuss – Qualification of Lokpal chairperson, appointment committee
• Discuss – Process of removal of above authorities (NHRC, CVC, CIC) and CAG, EC, UPSC members

UW has been conducting prelims mini mocks for a while now. Users have been posting their answers (some their thought process also) and every Sunday UW comes out with solutions and explanation. User response has been great and we hope, you learned a lot not only about the topics and your weak areas but the art of answering questions.

I had explained in an earlier blog – how to approach prelims 2016- that keeping an open mind, reading all options and using logic is very important in this examination. We have now started a series starting with polity in which we are proving solutions of last 7 years in a way one would approach the questions in exam and also the learning objectives.

Now that UW has already framed for you such wonderful 99 questions (1 question bahut waahiyat tham sorry UR), I thought of solving a few with our approach.

Let’s look at them

Mock 4

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise.
2. It has been set up by the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research as an interface agency to empower emerging biotech enterprises.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

• Most of us wouldn’t know if statement 2 is right or not but we would tend to think it’s correct as it seems correct but the art of intelligent informed guessing is that you think of alternative plausible explanations and if that’s rules out, you mark seemingly correct statement as right.
• So if not by deptt of Scientific and Industrial research by whom? It’s biotech so what about deptt of biotech? Seems plausible. Does this deptt exist? Yess. Under the same ministry.  

And with this you get +2 instead of -0.67

2. Consider the following statements on Global Positioning System (GPS):

1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM transactions.
2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring signals worldwide.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

So people were confused if statement 1 was correct. GPS tells about time and position. everyone knows it. So it can tell about time in atm transactions. It has to be correct.

3. Which of the following is/are among the ‘micro-elements’ required for plant growth?

1. Copper
2. Zinc
3. Potassium
4. Sulphur
5. Manganese

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3,  4 and 5

I don’t like such questions. MIcro/Macro/trace as different books mention different things. But still, you can easily understand examiner’s mind. You know N, P, K are major elements i.e micro. Remove Potassium, you reach the answer

4. Consider the following statements?

1. Vitamins assist the body in utilizing the nutrients.
2. Vitamins help in transporting the minerals to required places.
3. No vitamin can be synthesized in the body.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Statement 3, too sweeping. Pause and think. Are you sure it’s correct. Vitamin D synthesized in the body in the presence of sunlight. Vit K, B12 by bacteria.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Neutrinos are massless particles filling up most of the empty space.
2. They are easy to detect as they can be deflected even by weak forces like gravity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

If it was so easy to detect them, why would anyone get nobel prize for discovering it.

Mock 3

6. Which of the region/grouping of countries has the highest share in overall remittances to India?

(a) EU

(b) North America

(c) GCC

(d) East Asia

You would have to make a guess. Gulf right. GCC. The whole economy of Kerala is dependent on GCC.

7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Indian political system:

1. The Cabinet is responsible to the Lok Sabha only.
2. The President is the Head of the State.
3. Every state has equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Only too sweeping. Pause and think. It’s true. Cabinet/CoM is responsible to LS only not parliament. So don’t mark without thinking.

8. Which one of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is released on a monthly basis only.
2. IIP is released by the Central Statistics Office.
3. Electricity has highest weightage among the indicators used to calculate IIP.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

1st statement only. Too sweeping. Pause and think. Obviously statistics would be released monthly/ weekly/ fortnightly/quarterly/ annually. Monthly it’s true.

9. Which of the following departments is/are engaged in the protection of intellectual property rights in India?

1.  Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
2. Department of Higher Education
3. Department of Information Technology
4. Department of Agriculture and Cooperation

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IPRs are too broad. Associated with education, industry, agriculture, It, space etc. So all these ministries, deptt would be included.

Mock 2

10. Assertion (A) : The Rig Veda does not mention any officer for administering justice.

Reason (R) : The Rig Vedic society was free of any unsocial activity.

R is too sweeping. Free of any anti social activities. Pause and think, this can not be true. Cummon every society would have evil.

11. Which one of the following temple was built in a different architectural design compared to the other three?

(a) Kandarya Mahadeo Temple, Khajuraho

(b) Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram

(c) Sun Temple, Konark

(d) Jagannatha Temple, Puri

Kanchipuram in south, other three in East – central India

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Arches and domes, which were Turkish inventions, were used by them on a wide scale in their buildings in India.
2. The arches were decorated with human or animal figures and scrolls of flowers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Human, animal figures haram in Islam. Remember ISIS destroying idols, ancient mausoleums.

13. Which of the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833 is/are correct?

1. The trading activities of East India Company were to be abolished.
2. A law member was to be appointed to the Governor-General’s Council.
3. All law-making power was vested in the law member appointed to the Council.

Which of the above statements is/are correct

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• All law making power vested in law member. Isn’t it too sweeping? Pause and think. Who would vest all law making power in Law member? Obviously Governor general would keep at least some power. Right. So statement wrong.
• Infact, 1833 was culmination of centralizing tendency where all law making power was vested in governor general. Governor general of Bengal became, Governor General of India.

14. Narmada River does not have many tributaries primarily because

1. It flows through the region of scanty rainfall.
2. The hard rock surface and non-alluvial nature of the peninsular plateau permits little scope for the development of tributaries.
3. It flows through a narrow valley confined by precipitous hills.

Choose the correct alternative using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

• Statement 2 is BS. Aise to there won’t be any tributaries below great plains of India i,e in south.
• Statement 1 is also BS. If Narmada is flowing through a region of scanty rainfall, why can’t other rivers. And if they can. There can also be tributary.
• You know Narmaad and Tapi flow through rift valley. That’s why drain into Arabian ocean despite slope.

15. Which of the following regions is conspicuous for the absence of many active volcanoes in comparison to other regions?

(a) Indonesian Archipelagos

(b) Western Coast of North America

(c) Brazilian Coast

(d) Chilean Coast

Brazilian coast in on Atlantic. Other 3 on pacific. Easy Peasy. Need not know anything else. Cummn it was the easiest question.

16. “Trees are adapted to withstand the dry summer without shedding of leaves.  Plants have spiny, waxy or small leaves to reduce transpiration. Trees have deep roots to tap water from depths. Thick bark also prevent loss of moisture.”

Which of the following types of forests have been described above?

(a) Tropical Deciduous forests

(b) Mediterranean forests

(c) Tropical Evergreen forests

(d) Mid-latitude Evergreen forests

Deciduous forest shed leaves. No dry summer in tropical evergreen. What about mid latitude evergreen? I have forgotten whether coniferous or broad leaf. But did i not mention in titbits only Mediterranean has Dry summer and warm winter!

17. Consider the following statements about the Census 2011:

1. The density of population increased in all states and union territories except Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Male-Female gap in literacy rate has been lowest in the last five decades.

Which of the above statements is/are correct.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1. Think why would population density decline in Arunachal. I can’t think of any reason. Already so lowly populated. It should only increase.

18. Consider the following statements:

1. Winter rainfall over the plain areas of north-west India is caused by western disturbances.
2. The rainfall caused by western disturbances increases from north and north-west to the east.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2  only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Western disturbances means coming from west. Will lose moisture as they move east so obviously rainfall would decline.

19. The winter rainfall over the plain areas of the north western region of India is largely due to

(a) South-west monsoon

(b) North-east monsoon

(c) Western disturbances

(d) Convection currents

Internal repeat. See last question

20. Consider the following statements:

1. Isotherms are more regular and widely spaced in Northern hemisphere compared to the Southern Hemisphere.
2. Isotherms bend slightly while crossing from land masses to oceans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2  only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

If landmass is more regular everything would be regular. In north, land ocean land ocean. In south vast expanse of ocean so more regular distribution

21. Waves in the open seas are largely caused by

(a) gravitational pull of the sun

(b) gravitational pull of the moon

(c) undulating surface of the oceans

(d) wind blowing over the sea surface

If it’s due to sun, it would also be due to the moon. But both can’t be correct simultaneously. Only plausible explanation left is wind

22. The large difference in rainfall received at Mahabaleshwar and Pune, which are only a few kilometres away, is largely because

(a) Pune has dry air conditions all the year round

(b) Mahabaleshwar is situated at a higher altitude than Pune

(c) Pune is situated in a rain shadow region

(d) None of the options (a), (b) or (c) sufficiently explains the phenomenon

• Statement 2 is BS. rainfall does not depend on altitude directly.
• No rainfall hence dry condition, dry condition hence no rainfall??

Now the one Wahiyaat question

1. Consider the following statements:

1. Rural Employment Generation Programme was launched during 1985-86 to provide self-employment  opportunities in rural areas.

2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched during 1995-96 to bring assisted poor families above the poverty line.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Don’t worry if you get it wrong even if it’s asked in exam. Nobody can and even if one can should remember launch years of 20 years old schemes.

• But let’s consider statement 2 – Swarnjayanti i.e golden jubilee i.e 50 years so it should be either 1997 or 2000 but it was actually 1st April 1999
• 1st statement, 86-87 was the time of Rajiv Gandhi. He was a tech guy, why would he launch such schemes?

Not a convincing explanation I know. But hey, Question hi wahiyaat tha

Disclaimer – As I have said umpteen times, there’s no substitute for hard work and smart work. This is just to supplement your hard work so that you reap maximum reward out of your sweat and blood.

Let us know, how many of you would have been able to increase your score by at least +5. And you know the importance of +5, there would be at least 5000 candidates b/w 102.34 and 107.34 last year.

For Prelims mocks login here 

IAS Prelims 2014

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Ain’t statement 2, executive action in the name of PM / president same as power vesting in president/ pm <question prelims 2015>
• Statement 1 is obviously correct as all actions are taken in the name of president and he would obviously do it on the recommendations of PM.

Learning – Powers of president esp discretionary powers, Veto

2. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only.
3. 2, 3 and 4 only.
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 2 is obviously incorrect as appointment of ministers has to be on the advice of CM. Eliminate statement 2, it’s the only option left

Learning – Discretionary powers of governor vis a vis president, Appointment and removal of governor

3. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Statement 2 is obviously correct as we discussed above CoM is collectively responsible to LS only.
• Statement is factual, must know this <even zero hour has no mention in the constitution > <we discussed all such things in prelims titbits>

Learning – If you have to remember 3 motions they would be – No confidence motion, Adjournment motion, calling attention motion

4. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

1. The Committee on Public Accounts
2. The Committee on Estimates
3. The Committee on Public Undertakings
4. The Committee on Petitions

Has been asked n number of times, 30 members in CoE, all from LS

Learning – Classification of committee, election v/s nomination is imp. 3 must remember  committees are CoE, PAC, CoPU

5. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

1. Second Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Eighth Schedule
4. Tenth Schedule

Again schedules (repeat), 10th schedule anti defection law, 52nd and 91st amendment

Learning – All the schedules esp. 5th v/s 6th, 9th and 10th, 11th and 12th, amendment of schedules, Read up provisions of anti – defection law

6. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

1. advisory jurisdiction
2. appellate jurisdiction.
3. original jurisdiction  
4. writ jurisdiction

Common sense – No advice is sought, can’t be advisory, Federal disputes can’t be filed in other courts so can’t be appellate, has to be original, writ is for enforcement of writs

Learning – Advisory jurisdiction (Art 143), Writ of high court v/s supreme court

7. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

1. the President of India
2. the Parliament
3. the Chief Justice of India
4. The Law Commission

• Slightly difficult question. Option 4 the law commission and option 3 the chief justice can be easily eliminated. It has to be the role of legislature or executive.
• Number of judges in supreme court is written in the constitution and only parliament can increase it and this is not considered amendment to the constitution.

Learning – Appointment of judges (process), Qualification of judges of supreme court and high court, Measures to secure independence of judiciary

8. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Finance commission is concerned with distribution of taxes not planning. Eliminate it, only option left

Learning – Niti Ayog, Governance structure, FC role, qualification of members

9. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Statement 3 is clearly incorrect. It’s the function of finance ministry. Other 2 options seem correct, are logically correct, in fact correct

Learning – Functions of Cabinet secretariat, Role of Cabinet secretary (question asked in 2015, chairman of civil services board), Functions and evolution of Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

10.  In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

1. Preamble to the Constitution
2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Ninth Schedule

Repeat questions, has to be directive to the state. Can’t be duty of citizens

Learning – Memorize by Heart FDs, DPSPs, FRs and Preamble

11.Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which

1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Constitution places restriction on the authority of state so that it does not become autocratic <that’s why FRs n all>. Rights are actually given to citizens.

Learning – Meaning of terms mentioned in the preamble, Republic, Democratic, Secularism, Social Justice, Fraternity etc.

• Bottom line – Many repeats, no surprises
• 9/11 absolute joke
• 1 question parliament to increase number of judges moderate, 1 no confidence motion not mentioned in the constitution moderately difficult

We started prelims titbit with the objective of providing you most important pointers related to prelims. We also discussed confusing issues. To make the learning more engaging questions were asked in the form of discuss.

But after initial excitement, user response fizzled out. So tell us if you appreciate prelims titbits. What more would you like to see in that. And if you don’t appreciate titbits, what would you like us to take as a priority matter?

P.S. Analysis of last 7 years polity questions will be published tomorrow and that would probably say a lot abt the importance of this initiative.

P.P.S. We will publish only what you apreciate so feel free to give your valuable suggestions.

Thanks

1. Soils of India

As per ICAR, 8 types of soils

1. 1. Alluvial Soil – Flood plains, Very fertile, 2 types, Khadar <new alluvium, very fertile> and Bhangar <older, more kankery> <Hindi word khad is fertilizer so obviously khadar more fertile>
2. 2. Black cotton soil – also called Regur as they swell when wet and shrink on drying, high moisture retaining capacity, formed by solidification of lava of Deccan Trap, Black due to iron and Aluminum <titaniferous magnetite>, deficient in organic matters but rich in lime, potash, Mg, Al, Iron, Lime etc
3. 3. Red and Yellow soil – Red due to iron oxide, rich in iron, Mg, potash but poor in lime <contrast with black soil which is rich in lime>
4. 4. Laterite soil – In areas of alternate high rainfall and dry period, High rainfall washes away lime and silica <leaching>, iron and aluminium is left behind , Read in colour, excellent for tea, coffee, rubber, cashew
5. 5. Forest and Mountain soil – Forest i.e organic matter hence rich in humus which is less decomposed hence acidic soil, rich in organic matter but deficient in potash, phosphorous. Lime
6. 6. Arid and Desert soil – high soluble salts <capillary action> and phosphorus but deficient in organic matter
7. 7. Saline and Alkaline soil – Due to canal irrigation <salt left behind due to capillary action in dry areas> , unsuitable for agriculture, treated by irrigation with mixing lime and gypsum, Na and Mg cause salinity, Calcium alkalinity
8. 8. Peat and Marshy soil – accumulation of large amount of organic matter in waterlogged areas, highly saline and deficient in Phosphate and Potash, mainly in coastal areas

• Note 1- All Indian soils are deficient in nitrogen <any option that says rich in nitrogen would be wrong>
• Note 2 – All soils except very obvious forest and mountain soil poor in humus
• Note 3  – Forest soil is acidic, none other acidic
• Note 4– Black soil rich in lime while Red,laterite, forest soil poor in lime

• Discuss – Max area under which soil
• Discuss – Distribution of soils
• Discuss -Bhabhar, Tarai, Bangar and Khadar

2. Climate

1. Equatorial – In the ITCZ <what is ITCZ>, No seasons, Day and night 12 hrs everyday <simple naa seasons are due to tilt but no effect of tilt at 0 degree>, high temperature, high precipitation <>200 cm, convectional>, Soil is nutrient poor not rich <high rainfall leaching of nutrient, minerals>

2. Mediterranean -Only place with rainfall in winter and dry summers <in winters under rain bearing westerlies, summer trade winds due to shift of pressure belts>

3. British type climate -Cool temperate western margin <obviously Britain west>, westerlies throughout, frontal cyclones,

4. Desert – Hot deserts under subtropical high, horse latitude <sinking air, no rainfall>, Cold desert typically in temperate zones in the interiors of continent, rain shadow of high mountains, Cold current areas

• Discuss – upwelling v/s downwelling and effect on climate
• Discuss – Taiga Climate
• Discuss – Types of rains <convectional, orographic, cyclonic and frontal>

3. Theory of Plate Tectonics

1. Continental Drift theory of Alfred Wegener (1912) that continent ploughed through the oceans and once there was single landmass (pangea)
2. Then came convectional current and sea floor spreading theory by Hass to explain continental drift that seafloor itself moves as it expand through a central axis due to convection currents in the mantle
3. Plate Tectonics describe large scale motion of lithospheric plates <what is lithosphere?>
4. 7 or 8 major plates and large number of minor and micro plates 

3 types of plate boundaries,

1. 1.transform where plates slide past or grind past each other
2. 2 Divergent or constructive boundary – plates diverge from each other and new ocean floor is created
3. 3 Convergent or Destructive boundary – Plates collide, move towards each other

• Discuss – Driving forces for plate motion
• Discuss- Evidence in support of continental drift, seafloor spreading
• Discuss – Paleomagnetism, Lithosphere, Asthenosphere and various discontinuities

4. Plate Interactions

1. Plates can be Continental Plate <SiAL, FELsic, Granitic>, Oceanic <SiMA, Mafic, Basaltic> or mixed
2. Oceanic plates are denser hence subduct under continental plates <remember Wegener that Continet plough under oceans>
3. Transform Boundary – earthquakes , eg.- San Andreas Fault in California
4. Divergent or constructive – Mid Oceanic ridge, rift valley , Earthquakes, Volcanoes
5. Convergent or Destructive – when continental plates collide – mountain building and earthquake, no volcanoes as no subduction; when ocean – continental plates collide, oceanic plate subducts resulting in trenches, earthquakes and volcanoes, Ocean-ocean convergence, heavier plates subduct resulting in trenches, earthquakes and volcanoes and formation of mountain arc

• Note– Any movement at plates, earthquakes would occur
• Note- For volcanism, subduction is necessary hence at transform boundaries, continent-continent convergence no volcanism
• Discuss – Formation of island arcs in Indonesian Archipelago
• Discuss – No Volcanoes in Himalaya, alps but volcanoes in Andes and Rockies
• Discuss – Aleutian island and Ring of Fire

Open Your Atlas and Put your thinking cap on before reading these points.

1. Rotation and Revolution of Eath

1. Earth rotates around its axis <tilted at 23 and half degree to perpendicular>and takes 24 hours – responsible for day and night
2. Earth revolves around the sun in counterclockwise direction from west to east- takes 365 days <which planets revolves east to west>
3. Revolution of earth on a tilted axis is responsible for seasons <not distance from Sun of ellipse>
4. This tilt also gives rise to Tropical region <where Sun can reach directly overhead> and polar regions i.e arctic and Antarctic circles <where sun can be above and below horizon for 24hrs at a stretch>

• Discuss – Solstices and Equinoxes
• Discuss – Why in reality, 6 months day and 6 months night does not occur in polar regions?
• Discuss – Why isn’t summer solstice hottest day of the year even though sun is directly overhead?
• Discuss – Even though in January we are very slightly closer to the Sun than in June <elliptic orbit>, Northern hemisphere has hotter summers. WHY.

2. Indian States With International Boundaries

1. Pakistan – 4, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat
2. China – 5, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh
3. Nepal – 5, Bihar, Uttaranchal, UP, Sikkim, West Bengal
4. Bangladesh – 5, West Bengal, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, Assam
5. Bhutan -4, West Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam
6. Myanmar -4, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram
7. Afghanistan -1, Jammu and Kashmir (Pakistan-occupied area)

• Discuss – Which state share border with maximum countries?
• Discuss – States which share border with at least 2 countries
• Discuss – With which country India shares longest border?
• Discuss – which Indian state shares longest international border?
• Discuss – How many countries share their border with India?

3. Coastal States of India

1. 9 coastal states plus 2 UTs <Name those 2 UTs>
2. Total Coastline about 7500 km, mainland coastline about 6000 km<2 islands , Andaman and nicobar in arabian sea, Lakshadweep in BoB>
3. Gujarat has the longest coastline while Goa the shortest
4. 13 major ports in India <13th is andaman and nicobar port>

• Discuss – natural v/s artificial harbours , Only corporate port of india
• Discuss – Major artificial ports of India
• Discuss – States under Bhartamala project

4. Tropical v/s temperate Cyclone

1. Tropical cyclones are thermal in origin, energised by the latent heat of condensation and are thus formed only in tropical region with high sea surface temperature (10-30 degree north and south)
2. Do not form up to 10 degree from equator as coriolis force which is necessary for winds to rotate is very weak there <coriolis force is zero at equator and increases progressively towards poles>
3. Temperate cyclones are dynamic in origin, formed due to frontogenesis, confined to temperate region and are more pronounced in northern hemisphere as temperature contrast is more <why>
4. Tropical cyclones dissipate once they move on land as energy source is not present on land while temperate cyclones can form on land also
5. As tropical cyclones are more powerful, hence more destructive, brings more rainfall, cover less area and dissipates fast. Opposite is true for temperate.
6. Very imp. Tropical cyclones moves from east to west <in the zone of trade winds> while temperate move from west to east <in the zone of westerlies>
7. In the cyclones <all sort of cyclones> wind move in Counterclockwise direction in northern hemisphere and Clockwise in southern <coriolis force causes winds to deflect to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere>

• Discuss – why maximum cyclones on the east coast of India and not on the west coast?
• Discuss – Nomenclature of cyclones
• Discuss- what are cyclones called in different parts of the world

5. Savannah v/s Grassland

1. Savannah sometimes called tropical grassland has grass plus scattered trees which do not form canopy <open canopy>. In contrast, Temperate grasslands have virtually no trees
2. Savannahs have distinct wet <7 months> and very hot and dry season, receive more rainfall. In contrast, grasslands have more scanty rainfall and more extreme climate
3. Fire plays a very important role in Savannah, does not allow trees to grow much. It plays much less important role in grasslands
4. Savannahs have very thin layer of humus, soil is not very rich in nutrients while Grasslands have very thick layer of humus, very fertile soil <hence grain bowls of world>

• Discuss – Distribution of Savannah and Grasslands
• Discuss – Prairie, Pampas, Veldt, Downs
• Discuss – Comment on grasslands of India