Author: Dr V

  • UPSC Prelims : Environment and Ecology Analysis part 3

    Pre 2013

    It was one of those papers where 40% questions were not doable. 40% logic and common sense

    1. Consider the following pairs:
    1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve : Garo Hills
    2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range
    3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None
    • Map based very difficult question but hills of industry very important. Just go through the map once
    • Nokrek highest peak in Garo. See, next year, highest peak in Nagaland was asked. Still very difficult
    1. Consider the following pairs about parks and rivers passing through them:
    1. Corbett National Park: Ganga
    2. Kaziranga National Park: Manas
    3. Silent Valley National Park: Kaveri

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. None
    • Again difficult question.
    • Manas flows through Manas national park if you remember the name
    • Ganga’s route important. It does not pass through Corbett
    • Silent valley in Nilgiris / kerala
    • All calculated guesses would result in wrong answer to this question
    1. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
    1. Tamil Nadu
    2. Kerala
    3. Karnataka
    4. Andhra Pradesh

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Very difficult again

    1. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
    1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
    2. Coexistence of a large number of species
    3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Simple NCERT/ G.C.Leong
    • Dense forest – Continuous canopy, sunlight does not reach the surface, so epiphytes
    • 2nd is true. Great divetsity, so much rain and sun
    1. Consider the following fauna of India:
    1. Gharial
    2. Leatherback turtle
    3. Swamp deer

    Which of the above is/are endangered?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None

    Very difficult

    1. Consider the following
    1. Star tortoise
    2. Monitor lizard
    3. Pygmy hog
    4. Spider monkey

    Which of the above found in India?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Very difficult

    1. Consider the following animals:
    1. Sea cow
    2. Sea horse
    3. Sea lion

    Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Biology question. Sea horse is a fish..

    1. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
    1. resist drought and increase absorptive area
    2. tolerate extremes of PH
    3. Resist disease infestation

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Increase surface area. Mycorrhiza is given in NCERT
    • All are true
    1. Consider the following organisms
    1. Agaricus
    2. Nostoc
    3. Spirogyra

    Which of the above is / are used as biofertilizer / biofertilizers

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only

    Very difficult again. Biofertilizer is an important topic. Remember the names of organisms.

    1. Which of the following adds / add nitrogen to the soil?
    1. Excretion of urea by animals
    2. Burning of coal by man
    3. Death of vegetation

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Coal burning will release CO2. May be some nitrogen impurities buy that would also be release as oxides no addition to the soil
    • Urea contains nitrogen
    • Vegetation also contain nitrogen, carbon etc. So all of them would be added to the soil
    1. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
    1. desert margins, liable to strong wind action
    2. low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
    3. scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
    4. None of the above
    • NCERT
    • Contour bunding, terrace farming to prevent soil erosion in hilly areas
    1. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is / are correct?
    1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
    2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
    3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • 1 and 3 are common knowledge. Bagasse cogeneration
    • 2nd statement is about chemical fertiliser – bagasse is organic
    1. Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
    1. Beryllium
    2. Cadmium
    3. Chromium
    4. Heptachlor
    5. Mercury
    6. Lead
    7. Plutonium

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
    2. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
    3. 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
    • 7th statement plutonium. Heavy metal, not found in nature. By product of fission. Used in nuclear bombs.
    • Eliminate it and reach the answer
    1. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
    1. Arsenic
    2. Sorbitol
    3. Fluoride
    4. Formaldehyde
    5. Uranium

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2, 4 and 5 only
    3. 1, 3 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    • You would similarly want to eliminate uranium but uranium is found in nature. Problem in Punjab. So don’t eliminate it
    • Sorbitol is like glucose not a pollutants
    1. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
    1. Engineering
    2. Paper and pulp
    3. Textiles
    4. Thermal power

    Thermal power plant requires lots and lots of water plus so much electricity in India by thermal.

    1. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
    1. carbon dioxide and nitrogen
    2. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
    3. ozone and carbon dioxide
    4. nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
    • Simple. Very simple. NCERT. NIOS
    • Nitric acid and sulphuric acid
    • Co2 is as such present in environment in large quantity
    1. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
    1. NO2, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
    2. CO, 02 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
    3. CO, CO2 and N02 at low temperature
    4. High concentration of N02, O3 and CO in the evening
    • Simple, very simple
    • Photo means sunlight, 3 and 4 eliminated.
    • If there is peroxylnitrate, there has to be oxides of nitrogen also
    1. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
    1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
    2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
    3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None
    • 1st statement true
    • 2nd false, members of same species do not eat each other. Tigers do not eat tiger
    • Include 1, exclude 2
    1. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
    1. Ecotone
    2. Ecological niche
    3. Habitat
    4. Home range

    Simple. Very simple. NCERT

    1. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is / are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
    1. Virus
    2. Fungi
    3. Bacteria

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    Viruses are intracellular. They do not decompose anything.

    1. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
    1. insects and fungi
    2. limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
    3. water limits and fire
    4. None of the above

    Simple – think of savannah

    1. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
    1. Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
    2. Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
    3. Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
    4. Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
    • Ocean can not have highest productivity. So much of ocean area has no producers.
    • Eliminate 1 and 4.
    • Among lakes and oceans, obviously lakes would have higher productivity.
    • Mangroves, coral reefs have very high productivity

     

  • UPSC Prelims : Environment and Ecology Analysis part 2

    Pre 2014

    1. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
    1. Potential energy is released to form free energy
    2. Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
    3. Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
    4. Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
    • Simple. Photosynthesis is the process of food making in plants using co2 and sunlight which also releases oxygen. So obviously energy is being stored in the form of food I. E free energy of sun covered into potential energy
    • Anyway option 3 and 4 are the same. O2 uptake, co2 and water release. Obviously both the options can not be true.
    • Option a and b are contradictory, one has to be true
    1. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?
    1. Volcanic action
    2. Respiration
    3. Photosynthesis
    4. Decay of organic matter

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    • Sort of internal repeat.
    • In the 1st question, we discussed photosynthesis leads to co2 being converted into food I. E, it takes out co2 from the carbon cycle not adds to it.
    • Eliminate 3, now look at 1, volcanic action leads to release of co2, so2 etc.
    • Eliminate 3, include 1
    1. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
    1. Terrace cultivation
    2. Deforestation
    3. Tropical climate

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • 2 is easily true. Deforestation does lead to soil erosion even kids know that.
    • 1 is clearly wrong. Terrace farming is used to stop soil erosion in mountains/ hilly areas.
    • Include 2, exclude 1
    1. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
    1. algae and bacteria
    2. algae and fungi
    3. bacteria and fungi
    4. fungi and mosses
    • Ridiculously easy, NCERT
    • Covered In titbit
    1. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
    1. biosphere reserves
    2. botanical gardens
    3. national parks
    4. wildlife sanctuaries
    • Ridiculously easy
    • Covered in titbit
    • Biosphere reserve programme name itself is UNESCO Man and biosphere reserve.
    1. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. none
    • Statement 2, all kind of activities except agriculture, sweeping statement, red flag, pause and think. Obviously agriculture is prohibited first. scientific research, tourism in buffer zone etc would be allowed
    • Statement 1, it’s eco sensitive zone not wild life protection zone, so would be constituted under environment protection act not wild life protection act
    1. Consider the following pairs
    1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
    2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
    3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

    Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Very difficult, just remember these locations in case one of the option is repeated
    • Gumti is in Tripura
    • Saramati is infact highest peak in Nagaland

    8.

    Wetlands Confluence of rivers
    1. Harike Wetlands Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
    2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park Banas and Chambal
    3. Kolleru Lake Confluence of Musi and Krishna

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Harike is easy. You must know it. Bhakhra nangal and other related dam projects
    • Questions on keoladeo have been asked before. Chambal flows on rajasthan – M.P. border. Bharatpur is far away
    • Kolleru has also been asked before, very famous, Krishna and Kaveri
    1. Which of the following have coral reefs?
    1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    2. Gulf of Kutch
    3. Gulf of Mannar
    4. Sunderbans

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Sunderbans have mangroves not corals

    1. Consider the following:
    1. Bats
    2. Bears
    3. Rodents

    The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

    Biology question. You either know it or don’t know it

    1. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?
    1. Crab
    2. Mite
    3. Scorpion
    4. Spider

    Biology, either know it or don’t know it Crab a crustacean

    1. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
    1. Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
    2. Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
    3. Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
    4. Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

    Diatoms are like algae, would come first. Eliminate 2 and 3

    Herrings eat crustaceans

    This question btw has been asked before

    1. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are Likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?
    1. Oak
    2. Rhododendron
    3. Sandalwood

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    1. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses, Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?
    1. Painted Stork
    2. Common Myna
    3. Black-necked Crane

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only

    Ridiculously difficult

    1. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?
    1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
    2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
    3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
    4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    • 2nd statement. Increase in the population of crocodiles responsible for decline in the number of dolphins. Seriously!
    • Eliminate 2, reach the answer
    1. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coal bed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:
    1. Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
    2. In India abundant coal bed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Statement 1, propane and butane only. Only sweeping, red flag, pause and think. Obviously wrong. Shale gas is natural gas so would contain methane also plus impurities
    • 2nd statement – no shale resources, again wrong. Question was asked in mains 2013.
    1. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
    1. The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
    2. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
    3. The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines
    4. It is a source of high quality biodiesel

    It was very much in news as India produces maximum quantity of Guar gum and it’s prices fluctuated a lot

    1. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statemenrs:
    1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.
    2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
    3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None
    • 1 is true. Name itself suggests
    • In the last paper also, we disussed, cells produce dc
    • Include 1, exclude 2
    1. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?
    1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
    2. They can enter the food chains.
    3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • 1 and 2 Seems correct.
    • 3 also seems correct
    • Risky approach but I can’t see any reason for any of the statement to be wrong as they are all general statements
    1. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?
    1. Oxides of sulphur
    2. Oxides of nitrogen
    3. Carbon monoxide
    4. Carbon dioxide

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1,2, 3 and 4

    All are easily correct

    1. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?
    1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
    2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • It’s like 19th question. Both seems correct
    • Risky approach
    1. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
    2. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
    3. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
    4. Both (a) and (b)
    • Covered in titbit
    • A is true
    • Pure Funding organisations themselves don’t undertake scientific research on their own.
    • A correct, b incorrect, answer reached
    • C is incorrect, it’s not under OECD. Similar question in 2015 about green climate fund
    1. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?
    1. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
    2. The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo meters from the edge of the wetland
    3. The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
    4. It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

    Simple if you had gone through ransar convention

    1. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
    2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Again you could answer it, if you had just gone through it
    • Both the statements seem true but 1st is incorrect, it was formed way before signimg of Ramsar
    • Risky approach, I told you
    1. Consider the following international agreements:
    1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
    2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
    3. The World Heritage Convention

    Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only,
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2. and 3
    • Common sense
    • Heritage – natural heritage sites
    1. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
    1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source
    2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
    3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
    4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4,
    • 3rd and 4th statements are sweeping ones, red flag, pause, think, obviously incorrect
    • 2 is common knowledge. Coral reefs affected by global warning
    • You have the answer
    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
    3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • 1 is incorrect. Think. Animal welfare board under prevention of cruelty to animal act.
    • 2 and 3 are common knowledge
    1. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :
    1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
    2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
    3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • All 3 seems correct but 1st is incorrect. It’s am NGO <it was in news for some reason that year. Was in current affair notes>
    • Risky approach I told you
    1. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’
    1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
    2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
    3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only.
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • This is in news every year
    • It’s an initiative of wwf
    • 2 and 3 are obviously true
    1. Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?
    1. Bhutia and Lepcha
    2. Gond and Korku
    3. lrula and Toda
    4. Sahariya and Agariya

    Ridiculously difficult

  • UPSC Prelims : Environment and Ecology Analysis part 1

    Prelims 2015

    1. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
    2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
    3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

    Select the correct using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • 3rd is very innocuous statement, has to be correct
    • 6 principle organs of UN
    • IUCN has an observer status at the United Nations.
    • Eliminate 1 we get option (b) as answer.

    2 With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
    2. It is found along the entire coast of India
    3. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      (a) 1 and 2
      (b) 2 only
      (c) 1 and 3
      (d) 3 only
    • 2nd statement, entire coast, sweeping statement, red flag, pause and think. Obviously there would be stretches where it would not be found
    • Statement 1 is correct, was asked before. So if you solved previous year questions. Definitely plus 2
    • Exclude 2, include 1

    3. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using the coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction
    2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete
    3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3
    (d) 3 only

    • 3rd – only. Sweeping . Red flag, pause and think, why not oxides of carbon and some other things also plus everyone know it does contain some toxic elements
    • 1st is easily true, even if you don’t know, imagine fly ash and Brics
    • Exclude 3, include 1

    4. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity. Consider the following statements:
    1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
    2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
    3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • 3rd statement. All batteries produce direct current dc not alternating current ac.
    • Similar question on photo voltaic cell was asked last year. Benefit of solving past papers.
    • Eliminate 3, reach the answer
    • Look at option 2, it’s actually reverse. Cell less energy, power small devices

    5. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
    (a) Saltwater crocodile
    (b) Olive ridley turtle
    (c) Gangetic dolphin
    (d) gharial

    Ridiculously easy

    6. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
    (a) Bretton Woods Conference
    (b) Montreal Protocol
    (c) Kyoto Protocol
    (d) Nagoya Protocol

    • Ridiculously easy, covered in titbit
    • Montreal protocol to vienna convention

    7. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
    (a) It is the United nations Conference on Sustainable Development
    (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
    (c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
    (d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological diversity

    • Ridiculously easy, covered in bundle
    • Original Rio of 1992,

    8. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

    1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
    2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 only
      (c) Both 1 and 2
      (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    • The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCC. I think everyone knows that. So obviously 2nd statement is crap
    • Eliminate 2, reach the answer.
    • The GCF is based in the new Songdo district of Incheon, South Korea.

    9. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
    (a) Asian Development Bank
    (b) International Monetary Fund
    (c) United Nations Environment Programme
    (d) World Bank

    • IMF does no such things. Exclude IMF.
    • UNEP does not manage funding
    • It seems like international fund so international body, world bank
    • This strategy is very risky. Don’t use it if you feel comfortable with your attempts

    The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gases from land sector, deforestation and forest degradation in development countries(REDD+) and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices. It is a new multilateral facility, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.

    10. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
    (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
    (b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
    (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

    • GM/ BT cotton, BT bringer, always environment minister comes into the picture, remember moratorium by Jairam Ramesh
    • So b/w c and d, now it’s not limited to just wildlife protection so broader act, environment protection act

    The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

    11. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living tree into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘Living Root Bridges’ are found in
    (a) Meghalaya
    (b) Himachal Pradesh
    (c )Jharkhand
    (d) Tamil Nadu

    The living root bridges of Cheraupunji, so meghalaya

    12. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples
    2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management
    3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below
      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3
      Difficult
      All 3 seems right but 2nd is incorrect. It provides aid to govts

    13. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

    • It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
    • The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
    • It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
      Select the correct answer using the code given below.
      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3
    • Hotspot is common knowledge. Propsed by British biologist Norman Myers in 1988
    • Eliminate 2, now look at 3
    • It seems correct. Birdlife international, bird areas. as a biogeographic region characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss

    BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) Programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife.

    14. Which one of the following is the best description of the term “ecosystem”?
    (a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
    (b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
    (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live.
    (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area.

    • Ridiculously Easy
    • Organism plus surrounding biotic and abiotic environment
    • The term ‘Ecosystem’ was first used by A G Tansley in 1935.
  • UPSC Prelims : Environment and Ecology Analysis

    This is a very short post on how to approach environment and ecology section

    Environment and ecology + biological sciences form very important part of prelims paper. On average 22 questions are asked from this section (some overlap with geography)

    Year wise number of Questions

    • 2015 – 14
    • 2014 – 31
    • 2013 – 22
    • 2012 – 23
    • 2011 – 21

    But the most important thing you should know about this portion is that questions are of three kinds.

    1. Ridiculous difficult – about 25% – 30% of the questions are ridiculously difficult. You don’t have to chase such questions. Chasing them is a futile exercise.

    For instance, consider this question

    Consider the following pairs

    1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
    2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
    3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

    Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Now it’s impossible to remember location of all the 500 sanctuaries plus 100 national parks.
    • Don’t go after such questions. Just keep looking for ones in the news, you may just get lucky

    2. Ridiculously easy -20% of the questions are ridiculously easy. You can answer them if you have just even gone through all the portions very superficially. Not being able to answer them is simply a criminal action/ inaction.

    Consider this

    Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

    (a) Bretton Woods Conference

    (b) Montreal Protocol

    (c) Kyoto Protocol

    (d) Nagoya Protocol

    Not being able to answer this is criminal

    3. Conceptual -Rest 50% can be solved with 80% accuracy with decent knowledge and some logic and tikdams <we will try to solve them>

    At the cost of sounding repetitive, like every other subject, solving past 15 year question papers help. Topics are repeated. You get the feel of actual paper.

    Essential reading –

    • NCERT botany last 4 chapters
    • NIOS environment and ecology pdf
    • prelims titbits – environment and ecology (titbits are of course very selective)
    • civilsdaily environment newscards
    • Civilsdaily environment articles <will create a collection shortly>

    Most imp. Topics

    • Fundamentals of ecology – species, population, community, ecosystem, biome, niche, food chain, food web, energy flow, nutrient flow <N, C, P cycle>, pyramids with examples, succession, (just definition)
    • Protected areas – national park (location difficult to remember but keep looking at the map, look around to see the rivers and hills), sanctuary, biosphere reserve (location imp), wetland, Tiger reserve, community reserve
    • Biodiversity loss, hotspots
    • Types of species – keystone species, critical link
    • Species interaction
    • Environmental treaties, international organisations, funding mechanism
    • Climate change, global warming, ozone depletion
    • Pollution – acid rain, smog, photochemical smog
    • Environmental laws of India (understand them with logic)
    • Agriculture and soil conservation related

    In these last 10 days –

    • Solve last 15 year question papers
    • Revise your environment notes
    • Read newscards related to environment
    • Read titbits related to environment
    • Open your orient blackswan atlas and just go through the location of protected sites, rivers slowing through them, hills etc

    P.S. – We would try to very quickly go through 2011 – 2015 environment and ecology papers and also have a glance at science and tech, art and culture before prelims. <No promises but would try my best>

     

  • UPSC Prelims Geography Trend Analysis: Part 5

    Subjects:

    Pre 2011

    1. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to 

    (a.) Uplift of folded Himalayan series

    (b.) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas

    (c.) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains

    (d.) Both (a) and (b) above

    • NCERT
    • Brahmpaputra take a famous U turn near Mount Namcha Barwa, also known as Great Bend. The U Turn is because of the 180° bend of the Himalayan structural trend

    2. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino? 

    1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
    2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

    • El Nino and la nina are opposite of each other. So warm current in El Nino, cold current in la nina but both would happen in Pacific so 1st statement is wrong
    • As they are opposite if el nino affects monsoons adversely, la nina would affect monsoon positively

    Learning – learn factors affecting monsoon, role of jet streams, burst of monsoon, El nino, El nono modoki,  la nina, Indian ocean dipole

    3. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?

    1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
    2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere

    Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

    • 1st statement is factually true. Very less landmass very few countries in southern hemisphere.
    • Less landmass meaning vast expanse of ocean, less friction to movement of westerlies, stronger westerlies
    • 2nd statement is factually incorrect. Coriols force depends on latitude not on hemisphere

    4. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

    1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
    2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

    • No clouds or water vapour, sweeping statement, red flag, pause and think
    • No vertical winds, red flag, pause and think
    • Because the temperature in the tropopause and lower stratosphere is largely constant with increasing altitude, very little convection <verticall wind> and its resultant turbulence occurs there
    • Clouds and water vapour occur in lower stratosphere
    • Obviously you can say there is some turbulence but bhawnayen samjho

    5. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

    (a.) Andhra Pradesh

    (b.) Arunachal Pradesh

    (c.) Madhya Pradesh

    (d.)Uttar Pradesh

    Orchids – North east India

    6. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
    2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
    3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    • 2nd statement, only means of irrigation, red flag, pause and think. Obviously even prior to the technology of micro irrigation, dry lands were irrigated by canals and Wells
    • Exclude 2 and look at 3, if it’s more efficient method of irrigation, water wastage would be less and receding of water tables would be prevented

    Learning – Fertigation, Micro-irrigation, Rainfed farming v/s dryland farming

    7. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

    (a.) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients

    (b.) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability

    (c.) the rain forest species are slow-growing

    (d.) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest

    • Covered in titbits
    • Very high rainfall, leaching of minerals and nutrients, soil deficient in nutrients

    8. The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

    (a.) Paddy and cotton

    (b.) Wheat and Jute

    (c.) Paddy and Jute

    (d.) Wheat and cotton

    • Paddy in Bihar, Jute in West bengal
    • Wheat is rabi crop, mainly in northern India , Cotton in central India

    9. A state in India has the following characteristics:

    1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
    2. Its central part produces cotton.
    3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

    Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

    (a.) Andhra Pradesh

    (b.) Gujarat

    (c.) Karnataka

    (d.) Tamil Nadu

    • Cotton – Gujarat, Mahrashtra
    • Gujarat’s northern part is arid

    10. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land? 

    (a.) It greatly increases the crop production

    (b.) It makes some soils impermeable

    (c.) It raises the water table

    (d.) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

    • a is clearly wrong, if it were so, salinization would be such a great thing
    • B and c are sort of contradictory, one has to be true
    • Soil becomes impermeable as sodium and other ions are absorbed by clay particles

    11. Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?

    (a.) Bhitarkanika

    (b.) Chandipur-on-sea

    (c.) Gopalpur-on-sea

    (d.) Simlipal

    • Map based question
    • Bhitarkanika has been asked so many times

    12. The Himalayan Range is Very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

    (a.) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth

    (b.) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones

    (c.) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region

    (d.) It has less human interference

    B seems like most correct right answer <all other options also true but they are not specific to himalayas>

    13. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

    (a.) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out

    (b.) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster

    (c.) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as art excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami

    (d.) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots

    • A and c are rubbish
    • B obviously illogical
    • D is the only logical answer

    Learning – Mangroves, Halophilic plants, Carnivorous plants

  • UPSC Prelims Geography Trend Analysis: Part 4

    Subjects:

    Pre  2012

    1. Consider the following factors:(2012)

    1. Rotation of the Earth
    2. Air pressure and wind
    3. Density of ocean water
    4. Revolution of the Earth

    Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 4

    (d) 2, 3 and 4

    • Rotation of earth – Coriolis force deflects ocean currents
    • Winds are the primary mover
    • Now look at 3, density of water. High density water will sink,

    2. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :

    1. Deep gorges
    2. U-turn river courses
    3. Parallel mountain ranges
    4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

    Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    (c) 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • NCERT
    • Himalayas young mountain, youthful river flowing through that so deep gorges and U turn river courses correct
    • Young and fold, so originated in series so parallel ranges
    • Steep gradient

    3. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because

    1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
    2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
    3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Everyone knows about 1 that atmosphere is heated by infrared radiation emitted by earth not by the ultraviolet radiation of sun
    • 2nd statement is not true. What explains higher moisture in upper atmosphere. In fact moisture is more in lower atmosphere
    • 3rd statement is true. Air is less dense, meaning can hold less heat thus temperature is low

    4. Consider the following agricultural practices 

    1. Contour bunding
    2. Relay cropping
    3. Zero tillage

    In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequetration/storage in the soil?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 3

    (d) None of them

    5. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

    (a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

    (b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

    (c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together

    (d) None of the above

    • NCERT Question
    • Mixed farming is agriculture with animal husbandry

    Learnig -Interrcropping

    6. Consider the following crops of India :

    1. Cowpea
    2. Green gram
    3. Pigeon pea

    Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Common sense suggests all <i am not sure of the answer though>
    • All three belong to same family

    7. Consider the following crops of India :

    1. Groundnut
    2. Sesamum
    3. Pearl millet

    Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Pulses and oilseeds are grown in rainfed areas.
    • Ground nut – oil seed -grown in M.P.
    • Sesmum – oil seed
    • pearl millet – pulse

    8. Consider the following areas:

    1. Bandipur
    2. Bhitarkanika
    3. Manas
    4. Sunderbans

    Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

    (d) l, 2, 3 and 4

    • Bhitarkanika is a wetland and has been asked before this and after this
    • It’s famous for birds, not tigers, not a tiger reserve
    • Exclude 2, reach the answer

    9. A particular State in India has the following characteristics :

    1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
    2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
    3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

    Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

    (a) Arunachal Pradesh

    (b) Assam

    (c) Himachal Pradesh

    (d) Uttarakhand

    • Only in North East and Andaman can 80% of area be under forests, Himachal and Uttarakhand ruled out
    • Forest area in Assam can not be >80%. A large part of Assam is valley. It’s forest area is actually <50%

    10. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :

    1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
    2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of wetlands.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Factual but wetlands very very important
    • Doubt could be b/w Gujrat (rann of kutch and coastal wetland) and West bengal (sunderbans)
    • 2nd is also factual

    11. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? 

    1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
    2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
    3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
    4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

    Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • 2 is correct, everyone knows that. Corals calcium Skelton, acid will dissolve that skeleton
    • 1 is also true with similar logic, calcareous that is calcium Skelton will be dissolved by acid
    • Now look at 4,  cloud seeding would be affected by particulates present in the atmosphere not that in ocean. Exclude 4, include 1 and 2
    • shelter during a cyclone or tsunami

    12. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region? 

    (a) Rainfall throughout the year

    (b) Rainfall in winter only

    (c) An extremely short dry season

    (d) A definite dry and wet season

    • Covered in titbits
    • Rainfall in winters only in Mediterranean
    • Rainfall through out in evergreen forests
    • Short dry season would not be conducive for fires
  • UPSC Prelims Geography Trend Analysis: Part 3

    Subjects:

    Pre 2013

    1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    1. Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia
    2. Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa
    3. Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa
    4. Okavango Basin : Patagonia
    • Atlas mountain easy question, was also in news related to terrorism and coup in Mali/ sahel region
    • Abyssinian plateau is in Ethiopia (in Africa) ( in world history, we study abyssinia defeating Italy in 1896)
    • Guiana Highland= In South America
    • Okavango basin/swamp= In Southern part of in Africa.
    1. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    1. African Savannah
    2. Central Asian Steppe
    3. North American Prairie
    4. Siberian Tundra
    • savannah don’t have extreme climate
    • Central Asian steppes have. Plus nomadic herders. Imagine mongols and Mongolia
    • Prairies have farms, no nomadic life
    • Tundra can not have herders, climate is just not suitable for that

    Learning – difference b/w Sawannah and grasslands, names of grasslands, Koeppen classification

    1. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
    1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
    2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
    3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. None
    • See statement 2 was asked in this year’s CAPF exam
    • 3rd is factually wrong
    • 1 is given in NCERT. It also seems the only plausible reason as rift valley can force the direction

    Learning – rivers and tributaries mentioned in NCERTs

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
    2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
    3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. None
    • Geologic history of India very important. You can answer all such questions from that.
    • It’s common knowledge, Gondwana is famous for coal fields nor natural gas
    • Dharwar (Karnataka) has other minerals like iron, manganese not petrol
    • Mica occurs in Kodarma <kodarma mines in Jharkhand>

    Learning – geologic history of India

    1. Which of the following is / are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?
    1. High ash content
    2. Low sulphur content
    3. Low ash fusion temperature

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • High ash ie low quality. Indian coal is low quality. We import coking coal
    • Low sulphur is also common knowledge
    • But ash fusion temperature is generally not given in books. This statement was wrong. Indian coal actually has high ash fusion temperature
    1. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
    1. They are generally red in colour.
    2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
    3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
    4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 2 and 3 only
    • Covered in titbit
    • Easy question
    • No major soil rich in nitrogen. Exclude 3, only option left is
    • 2 is also incorrect as they occur in areas with high rainfall
    • Laterite soil is found on western ghats, tapoica and cashews grow there
    • Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminum

    Learning – Soils of India, characteristics and geographical spread

    1. Consider the following crops
    1. Cotton
    2. Groundnut
    3. Rice
    4. Wheat

    Which of these are Kharif crops?

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    • NCERT
    • Wheat everyone knows is rabi crop – wheat holi
    • Eliminate 4
    • Now look at 1 – cotton – kharif crop

    Learning – Kharif, Rabi, Zaid season

    1. Consider the following pairs :
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu

    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    • Tribes are asked but difficult to remember
    • Dongaria – Odisha is easy as dongaria kondh tribe was in news due to POSCO project
    • Karbi would be of Assam – karbi aunglong protest for separate state
    • Exclude 2, include 3. You can eleminate 2 options but you still need to know about 4
    • Bonda are the most primitive tribal groups in Odisha
    1. Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due to
    1. the earth’s rotation on its axis
    2. the earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner
    3. latitudinal position of the place
    4. revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

    Simple NCERT question taught in 5th standard that season are due to tilt. Only one option related to tilt

    1. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
    1. is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
    2. is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
    3. exists as groundwater
    4. exists as soil moisture
    • 1 and 4 can be easily excluded as they would be very low percentage
    • B/w lakes and rivers v/s ground water, simple logic suggests, even lakes and rivers replenish ground water reserves so that should be more
    • In any case it is taught in 7th – 8th Std. Ground water >>>> river lake water
    1. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
    1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
    2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
    3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. None of the above produces the thunder
    • Thunder is caused by lightning.
    • When a lightning bolt travels from the cloud to the ground it actually opens up a little hole in the air, called a channel.
    • Once then light is gone the air collapses back in and creates a sound wave that we hear as thunder.
    • The reason we see lightning before we hear thunder is because light travels faster than sound!

    http://www.weatherwizkids.com/weather-thunderstorms.htm

    1. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason / reasons?
    1. Thermal difference between land and water.
    2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans.
    3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
    4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts.
    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    • Similar question was asked in CAPF this year. Maximum annual range of temperature
    • You know 1 is correct Ie Continentality difference in specific heat, thermal difference
    • Statement 2 is a bogus statement, what does altitude has to do with any of that
    • Exclude 2, include 1
    • Statement 4 is also wrong, not heavy rainfall in interior but less rain fall in interior

    Learning – continentality, sea breeze – land breeze

    1. Consider the following:
    1. Electromagnetic radiation
    2. Geothermal energy
    3. Gravitational force
    4. Plate movements
    5. Rotation of the earth
    6. Revolution of the earth

    Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

    1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
    3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
    • 4th is obviously correct, eliminate option 2
    • But what the hell is dynamic change?? I have no idea

     

  • UPSC Prelims Geography Trend Analysis: Part 2

    Subjects:

    Pre 2014

    1. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?
    1. Continental drift
    2. Glacial cycles

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Common sense. Continental drift would mean some animals would be stuck to one continent, others on different with no chance of meeting and mating.
    • Similarly glacial cycles would affect evolution  as many would not be able to tolerate extreme cold and would become extinct plus sea level rise due to glacial melt
    1. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
    1. Equatorial climate
    2. Mediterranean climate
    3. Monsoon climate
    4. All of the above climates

    5th Std kids know the answer

    Learning – Learn everything about monsoon given in NCERT

    1. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement:
    1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
    2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
    3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Pashmima goat is found in jammu and Kashmir not in uttarakhand. So 1 and 2 can not be correct simultaneously
    • If such a community is asked, it must be tribal. UPSC asks about tribes.
    • Now look at the options
    • Tribes are asked but it’s difficult to remember all of them. Just focus on ones in the news, It’s tribe of Jammu and Kashmir
    1. Consider the following towns of India:
    1. Bhadrachalam
    2. Chanderi
    3. Kancheepuram
    4. Karnal

    Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1, 3 and 4
    • Kanchipuram is famous for sarees plus this has been asked in previous year
    • Karnal is in Haryana, no such thing there
    • You have eliminated two options
    • Now look at Bhadrachalam – it’s not famous.  You may not know it but as you have been able to eliminate 2 options, make a guess
    1. Consider the following rivers:
    1. Barak
    2. Lohit
    3. Subansiri

    Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • NCERT – tributaries of Brahmputra
    • Barak river you must know as it’s part of national waterway 6. You know it’s course. Also important because of issues over Teepaimukh dam
    • Exclude it, you reach the answer

    Learning – National waterways, rivers and their tributaries given in NCERT, Surma – Meghna river system

    1. Consider these pairs
    1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast
    2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast
    3. Mahadeo Hills Central India
    4. Mikir Hills North-East India

    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 2 and 4

    Look at this image in your atlas and try to learn the locations. It;s very imp


    • See, mahadeo hills was asked in 2015 also
    • It’s in m.p. ie central India. 3 is definitely correct
    • Now b/w 2 and 4, mikir in North East
    • Or if you Kaimur hills is in central highlands, you can exclude all other options
    • Cardamom hills you know are on the western ghats while coromandel coast is east coast

    Learning – Hills and plateau of India and rivers originating from them are very important. Just look at the map

    7. 

    National Highway Cities connected
    1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
    2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
    3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. None
    • No need to remember all the highways
    • This question was not doable
    1. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
    1. Andaman and Nicobar
    2. Nicobar and Sumatra
    3. Maldives and Lakshadweep
    4. Sumatra and Java

    • Easy. NCERT Question
    • You know the southern most point is in Great nikobar and is 6 degree 45 so 10 degree channel would not be south of India but b/w Andaman and Nikobar or Maldives and Lakshdweep
    • 8 degree channel is b/w Maldives and Minicoy

    Learning – Southern most point of India v/s southern most point of mainland India, Eastern and western most point of India, Duncan passage, 8 degree channel, Importance of Andaman and Nikobar island

    1. Turkey is located between
    1. Black Sea and Caspian Sea
    2. Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
    3. Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
    4. Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

    • Very easy. Map based question
    • Turkey in news due to civil war in Syria
    • You know turkey is in Asia and Europe

    Learning – Bosphorous, sea of marmara, dedanalles strait, Gulf of Suez, Gulf of Aqaba

    1. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north? 1.Bangkok 2.Hanoi 3.Jakarta 4.Singapore Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    1. 4-2-1-3
    2. 3-2-4-1
    3. 3-4-1-2
    4. 4-3-2-1

    Map based difficult question


    P.S. – Not all questions were doable in this paper but don’t go after them. Just focus on doable questions.

    P.P.S. – Everyone is free to point out mistakes. Free to criticize, suggest changes etc. Everything is welcome but do so without insinuating or attributing motives

  • UPSC Prelims Geography Trend Analysis: Part 1

    Subjects:

    In the geography portion, you just have to stick to basics. Basics meaning class 11 and class 12 geography esp. Physical geography and geography of India. If you have done that, you would be able to solve 75% of the questions easily.

    Study physical geography well, because it is conceptual and therefore will not fail you during the exam. You should be able to solve all the physical geographical questions in the exam if you study the “Fundamentals of Physical Geography” NCERT XI textbook thoroughly.

    Solve past year question papers esp conceptual questions of physical geography which will give you good insight into level of your preparation and help you correct your flaws

    Imp topics  (just basics)

    • latitudes and longitudes
    • Revolution, rotation and seasons
    • Solar system  
    • layers of the atmosphere pressure belts, global atmospheric wind, cyclones
    • types of rainfall (convection, orographic, frontal)
    • monsoons
    • ocean currents
    • jet streams
    • Elnino la nina modoki ENSO indian ocean dipole maiden jullien oscillation
    • Go through India’s physical geography. NCERT would suffice
    • Rivers and hills, soils given in NCERT most imp
    • Learn geological history of India well which would help you answer questions related to mineral resources
    • Basics of agriculture- again NCERT would suffice
    • Map marking

    Prelims 2015

    1. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

    (a) Sea Surface temperature are low

    (b) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

    (c) Coriolis force is too weak

    (d) Absence of land in those regions

    • Option C is wrong. Coriolis force is weak only in the region around 0-5 degrees North or South latitudes.
    • Option D is wrong as land cuts off moisture from the cyclone and a responsible for dissipation of cyclones
    • Confusion b/w a and b
    • UPSC ruled absence of ITCZ would be the answer

    Learning – cyclones, naming of cyclones, tropical v/s temperate cyclones (learn from the titbit)

    2. Which of the following pairs of States of India indicates the eastern most and Western most State?

    (a) Assam and Rajasthan

    (b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

    (c) Assam and Gujarat

    (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

    • Simple question. Map based
    • Has been asked before

    3. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

    (a) Bhitarkanika National Park

    (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park

    (c) Keoladeo Ghana National park

    (d) Sultanpur National park

    • Floating vegetation points in the direction of floating park, the only floating park in the world, located in Manipur which is a part of Loktak Lake.
    • Bhitarkanika is in Odisha,has been asked before
    • Keoladeo in Rajasthan – was asked last year
    • Sultanpur in Haryana – only option  left would be the answer

    4. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?

      1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
      2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place
      3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 and 3 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1,2 and 3

    • Statement 1 is absurd. If there is more nitrogen in the soil, less need for nitrogen fixing bacteria. In any case if fertilizer increased bacteria one dose of fertilizer would suffice for eternity  
    • Statement 3: common sense. If something is in increased concentration and also water soluble, would obviously leach
    • Exclude 1, include 3

    5. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

    (a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis

    (b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents

    (c) Difference in salinity of water

    (d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near equator

    • Controversial question. Go with what UPSC says
    • C and d are obviously wrong.
    • A that’s earth’s rotation is reponsible for winds and currents changing directions but then what’s special about earth’s rotation that would move counter current in opposite direction
    • B is the last option standing

    6. Consider the following pairs:

    Place of Pilgrimage  Location

    1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
    2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
    3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1,2 and 3

    • Pushkar is in Ajmer everyone knows that.
    • There’s only aravali in Rajasthan no mahadeo hills
    • Exclude 3

    7. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to

    1. a) Central Asia
    2. b) Middle East
    3. c) South-East Asia
    4. d) Central Africa
    • Map based question.
    • Golan height was and is very much in news due to civil war in Syria. Terrorism from Golan heights

    8. Consider the following rivers :

      1. Vamsadhara
      2. Indravati
      3. Pranahita
      4. Pennar

    Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

    (a) 1,2 and 3

    (b) 2,3 and 4

    (c) 1,2 and 4

    (d) 2 and 3 only

    • Rivers imp but obviously you can’t learn every tributary of every major river so a difficult question
    • Pennar is much to the south, can be excluded

    9. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

    (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh

    (b) South-West Bengal

    (c) Southern Saurashtra

    (d) Andaman and Nicobar island

    • Evergreen forest would not be found in other 3 options as not sufficient rainfall there.
    • Andman and nikobar have many Islands so chances of vegetation other than evergreen also thetec

    10. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?

    (a) Khangchendzonga National park

    (b) Nandadevi National Park

    (c) Neora Valley National Park

    (d) Namdapha National park

    • Difficult question.
    • Go with what UPSC says

    11. Consider the following statements

    1. 1. The winds which blow between 30o N and 60o S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
    2. 2. The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    • No winds blow b/w 30 north and 60 south. It should have been between 30 and 60 north
    • 2nd has been asked so many times in both prelims and mains
    • Western disturbances responsible for winter rains in North which is good for wheat and leads to snowfall on hills

    12. Tides occur in oceans and seas due to which among the following?

      1. Gravitational Force of the Sun
      2. Gravitational Force of the Moon
      3. Gravitational Force of the Earth

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2, and 3

    • If 1 is true, 2 has to be true. Sun is also exerting gravitational pull so is moon. Pull is pull, does not matter who pulls
    • Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the

    13. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?

      1. Assessment of crop productivity
      2. Locating ground water resources
      3. Mineral exploration
      4. Telecommunications
      5. Traffic studies

    Select the correct answer using the code given below

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

    (b) 4 and 5 only

    (c) 1 and 2 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and

    • For telecommunications geo-stationary satellites / your INSAT CLASS satellites are used
    • easily eliminate statement 4
    • Now look at statement 3, remote sensing is sensing from a distance so sensing from a distance if minerals are there, 3rd is true

    14. Consider the following States:

      1. Arunachal Pradesh
      2. Himachal Pradesh
      3. Mizoram

    In which of the following states do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Easy
    • typical rain forests in areas with high rains ie north east, islands of Andaman nikobar, western slopes of western ghat- very small area of India
    • Himachal is clearly wrong

    15. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

    (a) Syria

    (b) Jordan

    (c) Lebanon

    (d) Israel

    • Map based question you could easily solve if you were looking at the maps with the newspaper
    • Was in news due to civil war in Syria and refugees in Jordan

    16. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

    (a) Tropical moist deciduous forest

    (b) Tropical rain forest

    (c) Tropical thorn scrub forest

    (d) Temperate forest with

    • Asked before
    • Teak dominant species of tropical moist deciduous

    17. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, than rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.”

    Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

    (a) Savannah

    (b) Equatorial

    (c) Monsoon

    (d) Mediterranean

    • Simple
    • No seasons on equator
    • Rain/ afternoon shower due to convection

    P.S. – Everyone is free to point out mistakes. Free to criticize, suggest changes etc. Everything is welcome but do so without insinuating or attributing motives

  • CAPF 2016 Geography Solutions and Analysis

    Subjects:

    Four quick points before solutions and analysis

    1. This is the solution and analysis of geography questions from CAPF 2016 conducted by UPSC couple of weeks back.
    2. Focus on doable questions <and most of the questions are doable without too much mugga>
    3. Almost all the questions can be solved after reading NCERT physical geography and geography of INDIA so focus on that
    4. Analysis of CSE prelims geography would be done in days to come

    1. Which one of the following layers of atmosphere has high concentration of ions?

    a)Stratosphere (b) Exosphere
    (c) Thermosphere
    (d) Troposphere

    • Can’t get this wrong
    • Every one would have answered if they had said ionosphere. 
    • Ions would be formed if there is high temperature so thermosphere

    2) Which one of the following cities has greater annual range of temperature?
    (a) Kuala Lumpur
    (b) New Delhi
    (c) Shanghai
    (d) Ulaanbaatar

    • Shanghai and Kualalampur are port cities. Marine environment. Sea moderates the climate easily excluded
    • B/w Delhi and Ulaanbataar  (capital of mongolia) remember pm modi visited mongolia
    • Now you read in geography – Himalayas blocking chilly cold winds from the north. So Delhi and Northern India does not freeze but ulanbator does. Would have greater range of temperature
    • Also if you had solved previous years question papers or read climatoligy, you would know steppes have extreme climate. Mongolia – steppes

    3) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

    List I List II
    (Climate type in letter code) (Major area)
    A. Aw 1. Central California
    B. Af 2. Indian Sub-Continent
    C. Cs 3. North and South of Amazon Forests
    D. Am 4. Western Equatorial Africa
    Codes
    A B C D
    (a) 3 1 4 2
    (b) 2 4 1 3
    (c) 3 4 1 2
    (d) 2 1 4 3

    • From ncert koppen system of classification
    • m is for monsoon so d would be matched with 2, exclude b and d
    • A is for tropical, Af is tropical evergreen i.e equatorial i.e 4
    • Answer is clear now
    • Aw is tropical Savannah
    • Learn this system from NCERT

    4. Which one of the following rivers flows between Satpura and Vindhya ranges?(a) Tapi
    (b) Sabarmati
    (c) Narmada
    (d) Mahi

    • Very easy
    • Narmada river flows through a rift valley b/w Satpuras and Vindhya

    5. How is the rate of transpiration affected by decreasing humidity and by decreasing light intensity?
    Decreasing humidity Decreasing light intensity
    (a) Decreases Decreases
    (b) Increases Decreases
    (c) Increases Increases
    (d) Decreases Increases

    • Simple
    • If humidity increases, already mote water in the atmosphere so obviously rate of transpiration would slow down
    • Similarly if light intensity is more there would naturally be more evaporation more transpiration

    6. Consider the following statements relating to Sea Salinity:
    1. The ocean salinity depends on evaporation and precipitation
    2. Any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity
    3. Major source of sea salinity is terrestrial discharge by rivers
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • I is easily true. More evaporation means more salt left behind, more precipitation means more fresh water
    • If temperature is more, there would be more evaporation
    • 3rd is a fact <do check it again, i am not very sure about 3rd but I think it’s correct
    • http://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/whysalty.html

    7. Consider the following statements relating to salt production in India:
    1. India is the second largest producer of iodised salt in the world next only to China
    2. Salt mining is carried out in Himachal Pradesh
    3. Gujarat is the leading producer of salt in India
    4. Ground water is the important source of salt in Rajasthan
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) 2, 3 and 4

    • 3rd is easily true – Salt by evaporation in tropical seas, wind conditions, question has been asked in mains for salt indutsries in Gujrat, dandi March in Gujarat, >75% of total salt in India in Gujrat
    • 4th is also true – sambhar lake
    • Salt mining was carried out in Himachal Pradesh but stopped in 2011. There’s again propsal to start salt mining in Himachal

    8. Which of the following statements relating to Dharwar geological system are correct?

    1. They belong to Archaean geological period
    2. They are metamorphosed sedimentary rocks
    3. They are of great economic importance for its mineral resources
    4. They are found predominantly in Karnataka, Tamilnadu, Odisha and Jharkhand
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1 and 2 only

    • Geology of India is very imp. Learn it in detail. It would help you solve many questions related to chronology and minerals, hydrocarbons etc.
    • Archean is the oldest rock system found in aravalis not in dharwar and part of Deccan peninsula
    • Dharwar is 2nd oldest
    • name Dharwar itself suggest karnataka

    9. Which one of the following is the correct order of formation of geological systems in India in terms of their age? [Starting with the oldest]
    (a) Dharwars – Aravallis – Vindhyans – Cuddapahs
    (b) Aravalis – Dharwars – Cuddapahs – Vindhyans
    (c) Vindhyans – Dharwars – Aravallis – Cuddapahs
    (d) Cuddapahs – Vindhyans – Dharwars – Aravallis

    • Arawali everyone knows is the oldest. Only option is b
    • Dharwar 2nd oldest as we saw in previous question

    10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a) The rate of evaporation depends on temperature
    (b) The rate of evaporation does not depend on surface area exposed to the atmosphere but on volume of the liquid
    (c) The rate of evaporation depends on humidity of the surroundings
    (d) The rate of evaporation depends on the wind speed

    • Sort of internal repeat
    • A and c we have seen in the question on transpiration
    • High wind speed means wind will take away the atmospheric moisture so more evaporation
    • B is anyway a negative statement # red flag # pause and think # high surface area means more area from which evaporation can take place

    11. Which of the following statements are correct?
    1. Kolkata port is the only riverine major port of India
    2. The port of Cochin is located on the Willington Island
    3. Maharashtra has three major ports
    4. Mundra port is India’s major port in private sector
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1and 2 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 4

    • 4th is wrong. We had done this in titbit
    • Learn about ports from titbit
    • Ennore port is the only major port in private sector

    12. Perth located on 118th East Longitude will be celebrating New Year event on 1st of January 2017 at 6:00 AM . At that time, what would be time at Los Angeles located on 1100 West Longitude?
    (a) 9 : 12 PM of 1st January 2017
    (b) 2:48 PM of 31st December 2016
    (c) 11: 40 PM of 31st December 2016
    (d) 5 : 28 AM of 1st January 2017

    • Difference is of 228 degree
    • 360 degree equivalent to 24 hrs
    • 228 (240) would be equivalent to around 16 hrs
    • West hence behind, so obviously 31st dec, 16 hrs behind

    13. Arrange the following varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production:
    1. Muga
    2. Eri
    3. Mulberry
    4. Tasar
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 3 – 2 – 4 -1
    (b) 3- 4 – 2- 1
    (c) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
    (d) 2- 1 – 4 – 3

    • No option but to mug up
    • Muga everyone knows so at least you can exclude 2 options

    14. Which of the following statements concerning circum-pacific belt are correct?
    1. It is an active volcanic realm
    2. It is an active seismic realm
    3. It is a divergent plate boundary
    4. It is prone to Tsunami
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    • Covered in titbits
    • It’s subduction zone, not a divergent plate boundary

    15. Which of the following statements relating to solar system is/are correct?
    1. Venus and Uranus rotate opposite to the direction of rotation of Earth
    2. Venus is the nearest planet to Earth
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Covered in titbits
    • Venus also called Earth’s sister

    16. If a place is affected by Tide at 6.00 AM Monday , normally at what time the same place will be affected by Ebb?
    (a) 6:26 PM Monday
    (b) 6:52 AM Tuesday
    (c) 12:13 PM Monday
    (d) 00:26 AM Tuesday

    • 2 tides 2 ebbs in a day i.e at approx 6 hrs duration
    • so ebb at 12 pm
    • Learn exact details of tides, neap tide, spring tide etc
  • UPSC Prelims Modern History Trend Analysis: Part 5

    Subjects:

    Pre 2009

    1. One of the following began with the Dandi March?

    1. Home Rule Movement     
    2. Non – Cooperation Movement
    3. Civil Disobedience Movement
    4. Quit India Movement

    Dandi march is very very imp. for prelims and mains. Even last year question on dandi march in south India was asked

    Learning – Poorna Swareaj resolution and Dandi march, Choice of salt law

    2. With which one of the following movements is the slogan ”Do or Die” associated?

    1. Swadeshi Movement     
    2. Non – Cooperation Movement
    3. Civil Disobedience Movement
    4. Quit India Movement

    QIM has been asked so many times. Almost every year there is one question on QIM.

    Learning – Phases of QIM, Contrast QIM with other Gandhian movements, Karnataka method

    3. Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?

    1. Mahatma Gandhi     
    2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    3. N. M. Joshi     
    4. J. B. Kripalani
    • Gandhiji first three satyagrahas very important
    • One of them was Ahmedabad textile mill workers strike <this association went on strike>
    • There he would find this association
    • In this movement  Ambalal Sarabhai’s sister, Anasuya Behn, was one of the main lieutenants of Gandhiji.

    4. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle 16th October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons?

    1. The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall
    2. I Partition of Bengal took effect
    3. Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj
    4. Lolananya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poon
    • Questions from one of the most imp. topic <learn everything about it, sequence of events, when was partition 1st announced, when it took effect etc.>
    • there could be confusion b/w 1 and 2
    • The formal proclamation of the Swadeshi movement was made on August 7, 1905 at a meeting held at the Calcutta Town hall.
    • At the August 7 meeting, the famous Boycott resolution was passed.
    • Boycott was first suggested by Krishan Kumar Mitra in Sanjivani in 1905.

    5. In the ”Individual Satyagraha”, Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi. Who was the second?

    1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad     
    2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
    3. C. Rajagopalachari     
    4. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    • J.L.Nehru. idea was to court arrest by breaking a law individually <which law did he break?>
    • Third was Brahma Datt, one of the inmates of the Gandhi’s Ashram
    • It’s important to remember that the Individual Satyagraha was not to seek independence but to affirm the right of speech <Gandhiji did not want t embarass Britain during 2nd world war, hence was not in favour of mass movement>

    Learning – CDM v/s Individual civil Disobedience movement, Gandhi v/s Subhash debate

    1.  Consider the following statements:

    The Cripps Proposals include the provision for

    1. Full independence for India
    2. Creation of Constitution making body.

    Which of the statements given above is are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • 1 is wrong. It provided for dominion and that’s one of the reason why congress rejected the Cripps proposal <India would be a dominion associated with the United kingdom – Cripps propsal>
    • It provided for constitution making body and for the 1st time England conceded that constitution making would be sole responsibility of Indians
    • This was the one such propsal which was rejeected by all including Congress, League Hindu Mahasabha, Sikh, Dali

    Learning -:Cripps proposals, Wavell plan, timeline of events from 2nd word war to independence

    7. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf AIi was a major woman organizer of underground activity in :

    1. Civil Disobedience Movement
    2. Non-Cooperation Movement
    3. Quit India Movement     
    4. Swadeshi Movement

    Underground activity was the 3rd phase of quit India movement, so obviously Aruna Asaf Ali would have organised that during that movement only.

    Learning – three phases of quit India movement

    8. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, who of the following established Hindu College at Calcutta?

    1. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio     
    2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
    3. Keshab Chandra Sen     
    4. Raja Rammohan Roy

    That Everything about Raja Ram Mohan Roy is important, I have repeated ad nauseum

    9.Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?

    1. James Ramsay MacDonald     
    2. Stanley Baldwin
    3. Neville Chamberlain     
    4. Winston Churchill
    • Cripps mission came to India in 1942.
    • World war 2 was going on then
    • You all know Winston Churchill was war time PM. Answer is clear now

    Learning – mcdonald, communal award and Poona pact

    10. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?

    1. It curtailed the freedom of religion
    2. It suppressed the Indian traditional education
    3. It authorized the government to imprison people without trial
    4. It curbed the trade union activities
    • Repeat
    • Imprisonment without trial. For how many months?

    11. Consider the following statements:

    1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.
    2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • 1st telegraph line in 1850 <who was the governor general?>
    • 1st EPZ in 1956

    12. Consider the following statements:

    1. The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.
    2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All India Federation to be based on a Union of the provinces of British India and the Princely States.

    Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only     
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2     
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • GOI act 1935 very important
    • 2nd statement is true. It provided for an all India federation
    • RTCs were held to discuss further constitutional advance of India in 1930s so obviously 1st us also true

    Learning – GOI Act 1935, round table conferences and Gandhi Irwin pact

    A few difficult questions from CAPF 2015

    1. Which one of the following statements about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact is NOT correct?

    1. Gandhi wrote a letter seeking an interview with the Viceroy
    2. Civil Disobedience movement was to be discontinued
    3. The imprisoned freedom fighters were to be released
    4. All the lands that had been confiscated were to be returned to the original owners

    Only the land that had not been sold was to be returned

    2. Which one of the following was NOT the feature of the Home Rule movement in India?

    1. Boycott and Picketing
    2. Two separate Home-Rule Leagues rather than one All-India Home-Rule Organisation
    3. Setting up of discussion groups and reading rooms
    4. Sale and circulation of pamphlets
    • Boycott and picketing was done in Swadeshi movement and Gandhian movements
    • Home rule league was more of an intellectual sort of movement which mainly attracted educated people in urban areas

    3. Which of the following represents the main phases of the Quit India Movement ?

    1. Strikes, boycotts, and picketing in urban centres
    2. Widespread attacks in rural areas on the many symbols and means of colonial rule and authority, e.g. railways, telegraph lines, and Government buildings
    3. Formation of Home Rule leagues
    4. The ‘Karnataka method’

    Select the correct answer using the code given below :

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 1, 2 and 4
    4. 1 and 4 only
    • Phases of QIM very important
    • There was formation of parallel govts not home rule leagues
    • Home rule leagues were formed in Home rule movement

    P.S. This completes the analysis of history. Do solve last yaer questions of history of various UPSC papers and from 2000 to 2008 CSE prelims history portion

    P.P.S. – Analysis of geography or art and culture/ancient/ medieval India will be done from tomorrow.

  • UPSC Prelims Modern History Trend Analysis: Part 4

    Subjects:

    IAS pre 2010

    1. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?

    1. Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work
    2. Lord Cornwallis felt that judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
    3. Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.
    4. The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and’ Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector

    Obviously concentration of power in one hand wasn’t good

    Learning – Reforms by Lord Cornwallis, Administrtative reform, Judicial reforms, commercial reforms, Cornwallis code

    2. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.
    2. It proposed the setting up of interprovincial council under the Home Department.
    3. It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
    4. In recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.
    • Simon commission came to investigate workings of govt of India act 1919 and Govt of India act 1935 was enacted on the recommendation of Simon commission
    • GOI act 1935 abolished dyarchy in provinces and gave them autonomy
    • Answer is clear

    Learning – boycott of Simon commission, assassination of Saunders, Nehru report, RTCs  

    3. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of these resolutions?

    1. Annulment of partition of Bengal.
    2. Boycott.
    3. National education
    4. Swadeshi
    • Repeat
    • 4th resolution would obviously be on partition of Bengal not annulment

    Learning – politics played by moderates in this session, immediate cause of split in congress, Delhi durbar and annulment of partition

    4. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?

    1. The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States.
    2. Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander-in- Chief should be Indian leaders.
    3. Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible.
    4. A solution for the constitutional deadlock.
    • Way out would be way out of deadlock i.e constitutional deadlock as congress and Muslims leagues did not agree to Cripps proposals,  also k/as rajgopalachari formula
    • It was rejected by congress though Gandhi did talk to Jinnah based on this formula

    Learning – points of contention on Cripps proposals and Wavell plan, Rajgopalachari formula / CR formula

    5. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?

    1. Warren Hastings
    2. Wellesley
    3. Cornwallis
    4. William Bentinck

    Cornwallis – father of civil services

    Learning – Evolution of civil services, Macaulay committee

    6.With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:

    1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
    2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
    3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

    3 is clearly wrong as Britain did occupy Pondicherry but returned it back, NCERT British – French conflict

    Learning – Carnatic Wars and treaties,

    7. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?

    1. Mahatma Gandhi
    2. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
    3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    • Repeat, covered in titbit
    • In this, congress told in concrete terms what Swaraj would mean in real terms to people. Provinces based on language were also announced

    Learning – imp points of this programme and differences with fundamental rights of independent India, Bombay Manifesto

    8.Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?

    1. Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
    2. Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
    3. Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
    4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
    • Gandhiji stopped negotiating after RTC. Obviously tallest leaders would be the negotiators in such important proposals.
    • Others were Patel and Rajgopalachari
    • Both Congress and leagure rejected the propsal

    Learning – point of contention b/w league and congress over Cripps proposals, why did congress reject Cripps, Cripps offer an improvement over August offer

    9. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?

    1. The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon
    2. A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
    3. The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill
    4. Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers

    Repeat, very imp.

    Learning – Sequence of events in Swadeshi movement, Resolutions passed in Calcutta session, Politics played, Formation of Muslim League, Split in congress, annulment of partion, reunification

    10..Consider the following statements:

    1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
    2. Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • A farmer Rajkumar Shukla not Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Gandhiji
    • Gandhiji was accompanied by Babu Rajendra Prasad, J. B. Kripalani, Mahadev Desai Gandhijee

    Learning – Gandhiji’s first three satyagrahas and associated leaders

    11..Consider the following statements:

    1. The “Bombay Manifesto” signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
    2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • Bombay plan and Bombay manifesto are different
    • Bombay plan was during WW 2
    • In Bomaby Manifesto, they actually opposed Nehru’s socialist ideas / cooperative ideas
    • I am not sure about support from a large section but as it was proposed by leading Businessmen, might be true

    Learning – Freedom movement and capitalist class, Bombay plan

  • UPSC Prelims Modern History Trend Analysis: Part 3

    Subjects:

    Pre 2012

    1. Consider the following statements :

    The most effective contribution made by DadabhaiNaoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

    1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
    2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
    3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Asked many times indirectly
    • He was a moderate congress leader who presented economic critique of colonialism.
    • He wasn’t a social reformer. You don’t read his name in social reform movement chapter obviously 2 and 3 are wrong

    Learning – economic critique of colonialism, books written by Nairoji, ranade, R. C. Dutt

    1. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
    1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
    2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
    3. The Independent Labour Party

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 2 and 3 only

    (c) 1 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • The Peasants and Workers Party of India was founded in 1947. The party was founded in Maharashtra by Tulsidas Jadhav, Keshavrao Jedhe and others.
    • Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF) was founded by Dr. Ambedkar in 1942 to fight for the rights of the Dalit community. SCF was the successor organization of the Independent Labour Party led by Ambedkar.

    Learning – newspapers and other publication by Gandhiji in India and south Africa,  ashrams established by Gandhiji, parties established by Ambedkar

    1. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:

    (a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

    (b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion

    (c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award

    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

    Very famous incident. Gandhi took fast unto death on the announcement of communal award and Poona pact was signed after that with agreement of Gandhiji and Ambedkar

    Leaning – evolution of separate electorate in British Raj,  three round table conferences, participation of Congress and outcome

    1. Consider the following :
    1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
    2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
    3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

    Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2

    (c) 2 and 3

    (d) None

    • Tobaco was introduced by Portuguese. Everyone knows that
    • 1 was done even by Raja Todermal

    Learning – things introduced by British, Portuguese and Mughals

    1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding BrahmoSamaj?
    1. It opposed idolatry.
    2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
    3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • 3 is wrong. That Vedas are infallible was propagated by Swami dayanand saraswati and Arya samaj
    • 2 is common theme across socioreligious reform movement
    • Exclude 3, include 2

    Learning – brahmo samaj v/s arya samaj, split in brahmo samaj and Arya samaj, everything about Raja Ram Mohan Roy

    1. The Rowlatt Act aimed at:

    (a) compulsory economic support to war efforts

    (b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial

    (c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement

    (d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

    • Repeat
    • On the recommendations of sedition committee. Imprisonment without trial. For how many months?

    Learning – Rowlatt satyagraha, revolutionary terrorism/ extremism, HSRA, Yugantar, Abhinav Bharat

    1. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because
    1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
    2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
    3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) I only

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 3

    (d) None of the above

    • Repeat. All options are repeat
    • 1st is true poorna swaraj resolution
    • 2 is wrong, it was done in Lucknow session in 1916
    • 2 nations theory had not yet formed to merit passing a resolution rejecting the theory

    Learning – Swaraj resolution, Poorna Swaraj resolution, Pakistan resolution

    1. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

    (a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.

    (b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

    (c) BehramjiMalabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization

    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

    • was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao. It was virtually the social reform cell of the Indian National Congress.
    • The Conference met annually as a subsidiary convention of the Indian National Congress, at the same venue, and focused attention on social reform.
    • The Conference advocated intercaste marriages and opposed kulinism and polygamy.
    • Not very sure of the answer. B seems like the best option

    Learning – Indian sociologist and societies for Indian freedom formed abroad, role of madam Bhikaji Kama and Shyamji Krishna Verma

    Pre 2011

    1. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?

    (a.) It was a non-violent movement

    (b.) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi

    (c.) It was a spontaneous movement

    (d.) It did not attract the labour class in general

    • Repeat
    • It was clearly a very violent movement and was crushed very brutally

    Learning – three phases of quit India movement, parallel govt formation

    1. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?

    (a.) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation- of tribal products

    (b.) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas

    (c.) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas

    (d.) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities

    • Taxation of tribal products seems like a bogus option
    • Not every tribal area would have witnessed b and c
    • D is sum of everything

    Learning – major tribal and peasant movements, santhal and munda uprising, Eka, tebehaga, telangana movement, indigo revolt, Bardoli satyagraha

    1. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

    (a.) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man

    (b.) The good of individual is contained in the good of all

    (c.) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life

    (d.) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context

    • Don’t lose sleep if you don’t know the answer
    • You can read the book for essay and ethics
    1. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for:

    (a.) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement

    (b.) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference

    (c.) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army

    (d.) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

    • B and d wouldn’t make anyone famous
    • A is true. Last phase of quit India movement was an underground phase. Usha mehta ran secret radio from somewhere in India

    Learning – stand of communists and congress socialists on word war 2 and quit India movement, working class participating in QIM v/s that in CDM

    1. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?
    1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
    2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 only

    (c.) Both 1 and 2

    (d.) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Repeat, covered in titbit
    • B is bogus option
    • A is correct

    Learning – Gandhiji’s first three satyagraha, other leaders involved in those satyagrahas

    1. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

    (a.) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot

    (b.)Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars

    (c.) Making judicial system more efficient

    (d.)None of the (a), (b) and (c) above

    • reason was that the Court Fee was removed and now every body could drag anybody to courts.
    • The extension to right of appeal
    • Court fees were abolished
      Learning – Cornwallis code, reforms of Cornwallis

    7. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?

    1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
    2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
    3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 1 and 2 only

    (c.) 2 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    Home charges means money spent by Britain in Britain on behalf of India. They included

    1. dividends on East India Stock
    2. interest in Home debt
    3. the salaries of the officer
    4. establishments of the and building connected with the Home Department of Indian Government
    5. furlough and retired pay to members of the Indian Military and Civil Services when at Home
    6. Charges of all descriptions paid in this country connected with the British troops serving in India and
    7. portion of the cost of transporting the British troops to and from India

    I am not so sure about statement 3. Funds used for waging war outside India as when British fought in wars nor do I find direct mention of it in home charges. EIC donated money to them. IMO statemnt 3 is wrong

    1. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
    1. Complete Independence for India.
    2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
    3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    (a.) 1 only

    (b.) 2 and 3 only

    (c.) 1 and 3 only

    (d.) 1, 2 and 3

    • Covered in titbit
    • 1 is wrong. It demanded dominion status which was a point of disagreement b/W moderates v/s more radical young leaders like Nehru and Subhash

    Learning – Nehru report, swaraj resolution, poorna swaraj resolution, dominon status offer, independence status offer

    1. What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?

    (a.) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons

    (b.) To campaign for. the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary

    (c.) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament

    (d.) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament

    • D is bogus, who would demand such things
    • C is bogus. Not even Indian leaders were demanding independence at that time
    • B is also bogus. Anyone would first demand more Indians in higher Indian judiciary than imperial judiciary
    • A makes sense. Indian political reform was the favour of day then. Congress was demanding that. They also demanded same thing but this time in British parliament/ house of commons

    Leading – achievement of moderates

  • UPSC Prelims Modern History Trend Analysis: Part 2

    Subjects:

    Pre 2014

    1. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until
    1. the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.
    2. King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911
    3. Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
    4. the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan
    • All other options are absolutely bogus options
    • This was the 1st real victory of nationalist movement. British had to eat humble pie and annul the partition
    • In 1911 King George V visited India and  A royal durbar was held @Delhi
    • The capital of India is transferred from Calcutta to Delhi
    • It was held three times, in 1877, 1903, and 1911 and only the last time the sovereign attended it.

    Learning – When was Queen Victoria proclaimed as empress of India? 1st Darbar and Great famine of 1876 -78 and Lord Lytton, Annulment of partition and its role in reunification of Congress

    1. The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the
    1. attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
    2. attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress
    3. Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
    4. decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken
    • Repeat, covered in titbits
    • Poorna swaraj goal
    • NCM was in 1920
    • Congress did not even participate in 1st RTC. This decision was taken after Gandhi- Irwin pact

    Learning – Swaraj resolution, Poorna Swaraj resolution, Dominion status v/s Independent status

    1. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
    1. Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
    2. nationalist organization operating from Singapore
    3. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
    4. communist movement for India’s freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent
    • Simple question. On the east coast of USA, San Francisco. There was a newspaper/ pamphlet by similar name
    • This is a very important topic for this year as PM of Canada apologised officially for the incident

    Learning – komagata maru incident, Canadian PM apology, failure of ghadar movement, name of most prominent leaders of this movement

    1. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?
    1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
    2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
    3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Regulation of trade had already been done. Now politically directly under crown
    • The announcement reversed Lord Dalhousie’s pre-war policy of political unification through princely state annexation <doctrine of lapse>

    Learning – act of 1773, 1813 and this proclamation very important, Doctrine of lapse, first state to fall under doctrine of lapse, doctrine of subsidiary alliance, first state to fall prey to doctrine of subsidiary alliance, Contribution of Lord Dalhousie to India 

    1. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
    1. solve the problem of minorities in India
    2. give effect to the Independence Bill
    3. delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
    4. enquire into the riots in East Bengal

    Simple – Radcliffe was the jurist hence the boundary known by his name

    Learning – how was the decision to go to Pakistan or stay with India taken? McMahon line and Shimla accord, LOC v/s LAC v/s AGPL, Durand line

    Prelims 2013

    1. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:

    (a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces

    (b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League

    (c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies

    (d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

    • Question repeated in CAPF 2016
    • Indirect election it was <one of the criticism that members were not even elected by people. In fact even members of provincial assembly who elected them were themselves elected by jut 10% of the voting age population as the Franchise was very limited>

    Learning – Imp. committees of constituent assembly, Cabinet mission plan and interim cabinet

    1. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because
    1. Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
    2. Simon Commission recommended the abolition of  Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
    3. there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
    4. the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

    Very simple, covered in titbit

    Learning – Why did Simon commission even visited India, Recommendation of Simon commission, Nehru report in response to Simon commission, Controversy on Nehru Report, J.L. Nehru’s objection to Nehru report, Jinnah’s objection to Nehru report, Gandhi- Irwin pact

    1. Quit India Movement was launched in response to
    1. Cabinet Mission Plan
    2. Cripps Proposals
    3. Simon Commission Report
    4. Wavell Plan
    • Quit India movement was launched in aug 1942
    • Cabinet mission in 1946 -wrong
    • Wavell plan or Shimla conference – 1945 – wrong
    • Simon Comission report – after 1928, before 1932
    • Cripps mission – March 1942, answer is obvious

    Learning – Cripps proposals, proposed dominion or independent status? Why did it fail? Why was Cripps even sent to India?, Post dated cheque on failing bank?, Failure of Wavell plan?, Learn sequence o events from 2nd world war carefully, august offer, Rajgoplachari plan, Mount Baton plan and all

    1. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
    1. the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
    2. the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
    3. the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
    4. writing off all peasant debts
    • Covered in titbit
    • tebhaga means 3 parts
    • in 1946 the sharecroppers of Bengal began to assert that they would no longer pay a half share of their crops to Jotedars but only 1/3rd and that before division
    • the crop would be stored in their khamars (Godowns) and not that of the Jotedars

    Learning – important peasant revolts, working class movements, Bardoli Satyagaraha, Eka movement, Indigo revolt

    1. Annie Besant was
    1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
    2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
    3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

    Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Tilak started Home Rule league in April 1916 while Annie Besant launched her Home Rule league in September 1916
    • Theosophical Society was founded by Madam Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott 1875.Annie Besant joined the team much later, in 1889
    • She was in fact 1st woman president of INC. This fact has been asked many times

    Learning – Theosophical society, contribution of Annie Besant

    1. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
    1. imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms by Indians
    2. imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
    3. removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
    4. removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
    • Earlier Indian judges could not try Europeans
    • The Illbert Bill (1883) of lord Rippon sought to empower the Indian judges to try Europeans in criminal cases.

    Learning – Lord Rippon v/s Lord Lytoon, Vernacular press act, arms act, first factory act, Anglo – Afghan war, reforms brought by lord Rippon, reforms brought by lord Mayo

  • UPSC Prelims Modern History Trend Analysis: Part 1

    In an earlier blog post (How to approach prelims 2016) I discussed the importance of solving test papers, making educated guesses, analysis of mistakes etc. I also emphasized on solving past year question papers and analyzing the trend.

    After that, I analysed IAS prelims polity and economy section and we could glean some insights from that. In this series, I would analyse modern history section of IAS prelims.

    Modern Indian History has a very vast syllabus and now days not more than 7 – 8  <avg. 7 questions in last 5 years> questions are asked from that portion.

    Weightage given since 2009

    • 2015 – 8
    • 2014 – 5
    • 2013 – 6
    • 2012 – 8
    • 2011 – 9
    • 2010 – 11
    • 2009 – 12

    Most of the questions are very easy questions from oft – repeated topics. Our target should be not to do PhD on every topic but to get easy questions right. It’s important that reading should be purposeful not cover to cover reading of history books.

    In this series, I shall discuss questions and explanations of last 7 years (2015 to 2009) prelims modern history section. Attempt has been made to solve the questions as one would do in exam hall i.e using elimination method, pausing and thinking at red flags (all, none, only, weird statements), applying some tikdams where necessary.

    After every question, I have mentioned some learning objectives – things which are the most important  from exam point of view, things which have been asked again and again. You have to learn them all without any exception.

    Key insights from the analysis 

    1. Average number of questions asked in last 5 years is 7 and almost every question is solvable with decent knowledge and logic
    2. Lots of questions and statements are repeated year after year <solve past 23 year history without fail>
    3. More than questions, topics are repeated year after year
    4. Even when you don’t know all the options, often answer wallh option is clearly visible <importance of reading all the options>
    5. UPSC doesn’t ask questions which need remembering very intricate yet very useless details <for instance, it wound’t ask number of members in Viceroy’s executive council or legislative council but broad details and trends should be known – number increasing or decreasing>

    Most important topics

    1. Cabinet Mission plan, Cripss mission, GOI act 195, GOI act 1919, GOI act 1909, Victoria proclamation 1858, charter act of 1813, regulating act of 1773
    2. Quit India movement, Civil Disobedience movement, Non cooperation movement, Rowlatt Satyagraha, Swadeshi movement
    3. Gandhi’s first three movements
    4. Imp. sessions of congress <covered in titbits>
    5. Annie Besant, Sarojini Naidu, Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Arya Samaj
    6. Economic critque of colonialism
    7. Reforms of Lord Cornwallis
    8. Land revenue system – Zamindari, Ryoywari and Mahalwari
    9. Munda and Santhal revolt, Bardoi Satyagraha, Tebhagha and Telangana movement, Eka movement, Indigo movement

    Summary of all the chapters of Modern India book by Spectrum Publication is must. You must learn every point written there by heart.

    Once you have done that-

    1. Learn about imp. things about all governor generals <spectrum ready reckoners>
    2.  Arrival of Portuguese, French, Dutch and British <OLD NCERT modern India 1st 2 chapters would do>
    3. Peasant, Tribal and Working class revolts, Lower class movement <Periyar, Vaikom Satyagraha, Narayan Guru, Satyashidha Samaj, Ambedkar>
    4. Socio – religious reform movement <go through the summary plus all the facts about Ram Mohan Roy, Dayanand Saraswati >

    In this series we would be covering past 7 years papers <59 questions>. History being history does not change with time. So, you would be best served if you could at least solve the history portion of prelims from 1993 onward. There would be some 150 questions and they would serve you better than any prelims test series of this world.

    Without taking any more time, let’s look at modern history portion of prelims 2015

    1. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’
      2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha Gandhiji tried to use the Home Rule League
      3. Demonstrations against the Simon Commission coincided with the Rowlatt Satyagraha

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Rowlatt act is asked time and time again
    • You know Rowlatt act protests happened in 1919 (jalliah wallah bagh) while Simon commission came to see the workings of GOI Act, 1919 in 1928 so 3rd is wrong. Eliminate 3rd
    • Now look at 2, home rule league movement started in 1916 and Gandhiji did use volunteers of home rule league

    Learning – Rowlatt act, Jalliah Wallah bagh massacres, Himalayan blunder

    2. Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?

      1. Dadabhai Naoroji
      2. Subramania Iyer
      3. C. Dutt

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2 and 3 only

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    • Again multiple times it has been asked. Naoroji and Dutt you all know.
    • 1 and 3 only in 1 option
    • This question was asked in CAPF 2016 also <indirect repeat, books written were asked>

    Learning – books written by Nairoji and Dutt

    1. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:
      1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
      2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
      3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only

    (b) 3 only

    (c) 1, 2 and 3

    (d) None

    • Separate electorate were demanded only by Muslim league and Ambedkar
    • No party would advice evasion of taxes. As a protest, it can ask you not to pay taxes or not to pay illegal due but not to evade that is hide and not pay taxes
    • CSP is not communistic but socialist so no question of dictatorship

    Learning – Formation of Congress socialist party, formation of Swarajya party, formation of liberal party , their leaders, point of differences with main congress party

    1. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

    (a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature

    (b)the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments

    (c)the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy

    (d)None of the above

    • A and c are bogus options
    • It introduced dyarchy in states. So among provincial subject, some transferred to popularly elected ministers in state. As there was a provincial list, it defined jurisdiction of central and provincial govt
    • Covered in titbit

    Learning – GOI act 1909, 1919 and 1935

    1. Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

    (a) V.O Chidambaram Pillai

    (b) C. Rajagopalachari

    (c) K. Kamaraj

    (d) Annie Besant

    • You have to remember the name, Dandi march is way too important
    • BTW, V.O.C.P had differences with Gandhi and had withdrawn from congress in 1920, more of a labor leader later

    6. Consider the following statements :

    1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
    2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 only

    (c) Both 1 and 2

    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Repeat question.
    • In 2014, question about Annie besant was asked and one of the statement was that she was the 1st woman president which is true
    • 2nd statement is true
    • Both covered in titbit

    Learning – Give special focus to contribution of women

    7. With reference to cabinet mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It recommended a federal government.
    2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
    3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    (a) 1 only

    (b) 2 and 3

    (c) 1 and 3

    (d) None

    • B and c are bogus options
    • More or less Indians in ICS, these were the battles fought before Gandhi came on the scene.
    • There was already federal govt under GOI act, 1935. It also provided for federal govt with very weak centre to assuage concerns of League
    • Cabinet mision plan is asked again and again

    Learning – 5 pointers on cabinet mission and Cripps mission and differences

    8. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?

    (a) Swadeshi Movement

    (b) Quit India Movement

    (c) Non-Cooperation Movement

    (d) Civil Disobedient Movement

    • Repeat
    • Swadeshi movement led to Surat split in 1907
    • What were the main issues of conflict in swadeshi b/W moderates and extremist
    • What led to reunification of Congress
    • Why did liberal party separate from Congress

    Learning – Swadeshi – boycott movement, 1906 Calcutta session and 4 resolutions, Politics played by moderates there, Formation of Muslim League, Split in congress, annulment of Partition in 1911

  • CAPF 2016 History Solutions and Analysis

    Subjects:

    Three Quick Points

    1. This is solution and analysis of CAPF history portion conducted couple of weeks back
    2. Most of the questions were on typical UPSC pattern from oft repeated topics and doable
    3. Analysis of past 7 years prelims history portion ( 2015 to 2009) would be done in coming days

    1. Which of the following statements about the Swadeshi movement in Bengal in 1905 are correct?
    1. It was marked by the mass mobilization through the organization of ‘Samitis”
    2. It was marked by the mass mobilization through labour strikes
    3. It advocated a constructive programme of self help or ‘atmashakti’
    4. In the sphere of education, national schools were established
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1 and 4 only
    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

    • Swadeshi is an oft repeated topic.
    • All are true. everything seems true – if you try to imagine Swadeshi – Boycott movement.
    • They are written even in the summary of Spectrum modern India book.

    Learning –– Swadeshi movement, Split in congress, reunification, SUMMARY OF ALL CHAPTERS FROM SPECTRUM IS MUST -YOU MUST REMEEMBER EVERY WORD WRITTEN IN SUMMARY BY HEART

    2. Which of the following was/were the features of the Quit India Movement?
    1. From the very beginning , it was rural revolt
    2. It was essentially a moderate movement
    3. It was marked by the unprecedented use of violence
    4. It was marked by acute state repression
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1only
    (b) 1 and 2
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 3 and 4

    • 2 is definitely wrong as it was a spontaneous, very violent protest movement.  In any case, 2 and 3 are contradictory so only one of them can be true
    • 4 is definitely true as it was marked by acute state repression
    • Now check 1, it seems untrue. It was rural revolt from the beginning implies, it remained a rural revolt through out. But in fact, it moved in phases <3 phases actually>

    Learning – Quit India movement, phases of movement, compare and contrast imp. features of Non cooperation movement, civil disobedience movement and Quit India movement

    3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below Lists:
    List I List II
    (Author) (Book)
    A. Dadabhai Naoroji 1. Essays on Indian Economics
    B. Prafulla Chandra Ray 2. Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India
    C. Mahadev Govind Ranade 3. Economic History of India
    D. R.C.Dutt 4. The Poverty Problem in India
    Code:
    A B C D
    (a) 2 4 1 3
    (b) 3 1 4 2
    (c) 2 1 4 3
    (d) 3 4 1 2

    • Repeat
    • Nairoji – Poverty and unbritish rule,  a-2, so only a and c left,
    • Knowing about R C dutt won’t help
    • But Ranade is also very famous – Essays on Indian economics, i.e c-1

    Learning – Economic, trade and financial imperialism of British

    4. Which of the following statements about the founding of the Indian National Congress (INC) is / are correct?
    1. The INC was formed in Bombay 1885
    2. The first president of the INC W.C.Banerjee
    Select the correct answer using the given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • Repeat, very simple
    • Can’t afford to mark such questions wrong

    Learning – Imp. congress sessions from titbits

    5. Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hool of 1855-56:
    1. The Santhals were in a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out
    2. The Santhal rebels were treated very leniently by British officials
    3. Santhal inhabited areas eventually constituted into separate administrative units called Santhal parganas
    4. The Santhal rebellion was the only major rebellion in mid 19th century India
    Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 1, 3 and 4
    (d) 1 and 3 only

    • 4, only , red flag, pause and think, obviously wrong. There were so many revolts at that time <1857>
    • 2 is also wrong, British officials did not treat any rebels leniently
    • Now look at 3rd, yes Santhal Parganas was formed

    Learning – Imp. tribal and peasant revolts, Santhal, Munda, Tebhaga, Bardoli

    6. Who among the following founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815 ?
    (a) Keshab Chandra Sen
    (b) Debendranath Tagore
    (c) Ram Mohan Roy
    (d) Bijoy Krishna Goswami

    Simple, D.N. Tagore – Tattvabodhini Sabha, K.C. Sen – Brahmo samaj of India

    Learning – names and founders of all imp socio religious reform movements, Books written by R.R.M Roy, Brahmo samaj v/s Arya Samaj, Split in Brahmo Samaj and Arya Samj

    7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Permanent Settlement?
    (a) The Permanent Settlement vested landownership right in the Zamindar
    (b) The Permanent Settlement continued to pay attention to the customary occupancy rights of peasants
    (c) The burden of the high revenue assessment was shifted to the peasants under the Permanent Settlement
    (d) The condition of the actual cultivators of the land declined under Permanent Settlement

    • a and b are contradictory
    • It is also known as Zamindari system so obviously a is true

    Learning – salient features, geographical spread and initiators of all 3 land revenue systems

    8) Which of the following is / are characteristic(s) of the Ryotwari system?
    1. It was the brainchild of Thomas Munro
    2. It was meant to reduce intermediaries
    3. Cultivating peasants were gradually impoverished by the system
    4. It was introduced in parts of Madras and Bengal Presidency
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 2 , 3 and 4

    • You all know, permanent settlement was introduced in Bengal
    • Peasants were impoverished in every system, 3 is true
    • Eliminate 4, include 3, only option b
    • Other 2 options are also true

    Learning – salient features, geographical spread and initiators of all 3 land revenue systems

    9. Which of the following is / are characteristics of the debate between ‘Anglieists’ and ‘Orientalists’ in the 1830’ ?
    1. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money being spent on printing Sanskrit and Arabic texts
    2. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money spent on printing Sanskrit texts and wished to continue to print in Persian
    3. The Orientalists wanted stipend for the students of Arabic and Sanskrit
    4. The Orientalists started a new Sanskrit College in Delhi
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1only
    (b) 1 3, and 4
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 2 , 3 and 4

    • You know the meaning of anglicists – who belived in superiority of European race and their language while orientalist thought there was much to learn from native Oriental languages
    • 1 and 3 seems correct by that logic
    • 2 would be wrong
    • 4 is factual, there was Sanskrit college in Kolkata not in Delhi, In delhi there was Oriental college

    Learning – Charter act of 1813 and spread of education and missionaries in India, Maucalay’s vision of education. Woods dispatch,

    10. Who among the following British ethnographers launched the Survey of India project in the 1860’s ?

    • (a) Hunter
    • b) Dufferin
    • (c) Risley
    • (d) Thurston

    Don’t take any load if you don’t know the answer but Dufferin must be eliminated as he was governor general

    11) Which of the following statements about ‘Barnaparichay’ a mid 19th century Bengali text is/are correct?
    1. It was written by Raja Rammohan Roy
    2. It was the most widely used Bengali primer of the time
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    • You must know every book written by Ram Mohan Roy. If you did, you wold know, it wasn’t written by him
    • It was written by Ishwar Chand VidyaSagar
    • 2 is true, name, Barnaparichay says it all
    • Don’t take too much load if you din’t know the answer

    Learning – Books written by Ram Mohan Roy, Newspapers, Translations, Organizations, colege established,  his views on sacred Indian texts

    12. Which of the following statements about the Champaran Satyagrah is / are correct?
    1. The Champaran region had a long tradition of anti-planter discontent and agitation
    2. Mahatma Gandhi gave all India publicity to the grievances of Champaran cultivators
    3. The cultivators of Champaran had protested against excessive taxation on sugar
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 , 2 and 3

    • Repeat
    • Champaran, teenkathia system, indigo, eliminate 3
    • 2 is obviously true.
    • Answer is clear

    Learning – Gandhi’s 1st 3 satyahraha, Other leaders involved in Satyagraha

  • Rocks, reefs or islands – what is the difference?

    What’s the implication wrt UNCLOS? Answer without googling me

  • CAPF 2016 – Economy, Environment and Bio-sciences solutions and Analysis

    Subjects:

    Economy 

    1. During 2014-2015, in which one of the following industrial sectors, the FDI equity inflow was maximum?
    (a) Telecommunications
    (b) Services (Financial, Banking and Insurance, Non-Financial/ Business R&D etc.)
    (c) Drugs and Pharmaceuticals
    (d) Hotel and Tourism

    • During CSE analysis, I mentioned sectors receiving maximum FDI are important as are the countries from which maximum FDI arrives.
    • It has been in news again and again that despite make in India push, maximum FDI in services

    Learning – Descending order of FDI service wise and country wise, FDI and DTAA, India-Singapore DTAA v/s India – Mauritius DTAA
    2. Which one of the following is not industrial corridor as per the policy initiatives?
    (a) Amritsar – Kolkata
    (b) Delhi – Mumbai
    (c) Kolkata – Guwahati
    (d) Chennai – Bengaluru

    • Industrial and freight corridors very important.
    • If you don’t know the answer, Kolkata- Guwahati corridor is not possible as B’desh is present in the route. You all know about something called Siliguri corridor.

    Learning – Siliguri corridor, North – South corridor , East – West corridor, Diamond quadrilateral, DMIC, CBIC, BCIM, which country is sponsoring which corridor

    1. Which of the following are the objectives of the Khadi and Village Industrial commission?
      1. To provide employment in rural areas
      2. To produce saleable articles
      3. To create self reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit
      Select the correct answer using the code given below:
      (a) 1, 2 and 3
      (b) 1 and 2 only
      (c) 2 and 3 only
      (d) 1 and 3 only
    • 1 and 3 are obvious.
    • It also produces saleable articles <it’s economic objective, 1st is social objective, 3rd is wider objective>
    • Is KVIC statutory?

    Learning – Khadi v/s hand loom textile v/s power loom textile, MSME v/s cottage industry
    4. Which one of the following cities hosted the Tenth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organisation Conference of World Trade Organisation during December 2015?
    (a) Geneva
    (b) Manila
    (c) Helsinki
    (d) Nairobi

    Simple. You must now the location and outcome of meeting of all the important international organisations.

    1. Which of the following statements about ‘Nairobi Package’ adopted in the Tenth Miniserial Conference of WTO is / are correct?
      1. No safeguard mechanism for developing country members
      2. Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries
      3. Public stock holding for food security purposes
      Select the correct answer using the code given below:
      (a) 1only
      (b) 1 and 2 only
      (c) 2 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3
    • You must know salient outcomes of important meetings.
    • 1 is definitely wrong as there was some concession on SSM though modalities could not be agreed upon. Eliminate it, you reach the answer

    Learning – Nairobi package, SSM, SP, S&D, safeguard duties, AoA, Bali package, trade facilitation

    6. Which of the following pairs of Scheme and Target Group, as initiated in the Railway Budget 2016, is / are correctly matched?
    Scheme Target Group
    1. Antyodaya Express : For the Reserved Passengers
    2. Deen Dayalu Coaches: For the Unreserved Passengers
    3. Humsafar : For the Reserved Passengers’
    4. Tejas : For the Unreserved Passengers
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 , 2 and 3
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 3 and 4
    (d) 2 only

    • Antyodaya that is for the last one, obviously poor so obviously unreserved train
    • Tejas i.e Tej i.e Fast so obviously reserved super fast
    • Deen – Dayalu again for the poor – unreserved
    • Humsafar is dicey

    Learning – Highlights of Union budget and Rail budget

    Environment and Biological Sciences

    1. The largest greenhouse gas leakage in the US history took place in February 2016. The gas was :
    (a) Carbon dioxide
    (b) Methane
    (c) Chlorofluorocarbon
    (d) Nitrous oxide

    • Only natural gas / methane leaks. It is found underground.
    • Co2, CFC and N2O won’t leak

    Learning – GHGs under Kyoto, Global warming potential of various gases

    2. The ‘Paris Agreement’ adopted in Conference of the Parties (COP 21) in December 2015 will be effective provided the document is signed by :
    (a) 51 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 51% of global greenhouse gas emission
    (b) 51 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emission
    (c) 55 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emission
    (d) 75 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 51% of global greenhouse gas emission

    • You have to remember it. Was very much in the news as Donald Trump vowed not to ratify the deal
    • Was also there in newscards

    3. Ramsar Convention , to which India is a signatory is related to conservation and wise use of :

    (a) wetlands b)genetic resources
    (c) mines
    (d) forest lands

    Repeat question – Ramsar wetlands

    Learning – Other environmental conventions and treaties <covered in titbits>

    4. process of using microbes to treat areas of land or sea that have been contaminated by
    pesticides, oil or solvents is known as
    (a) Eutrophication
    (b) Nitrification
    (c) Ammonification (d) Bioremediation

    • Nitrification and ammonification is common sense
    • Eutrophication has been asked multiple times
    • It’s bioremediation

    Learning – Eutrophication, algal bloom, phytoremediation, Nitrogen fixing bacteria, denitrification

    5. Which one of the following is the correct taxonomic hierarchy?
    (a) Kingdom – phylum – order – genus – family – class – species
    (b) Kingdom – order – class – phylum – family – genus – species
    (c) Kingdom – class – order – phylum – family – species – genus
    (d) Kingdom – phylum – class – order – family – genus – species

    • Species is the smallest unit, c is eliminated
    • Genus related to genes would be just above species, c eliminated
    • Phylum just below kingdom,< phylum vertebrata >

    6. The subunits of DNA are known as :
    (a) Nucleotide
    (b) Nucleosome (c) Nucleoside
    (d) Polypeptide

    • 8th class NCERT is enough
    • DNA – Deoxy ribo nucleotide so obviously answer would be nucleotide

    Learning – DNA v/s RNA, Nucleoside v/s Nucleotide, Protein v/s peptide v/s amino acid

    7. Vaccination involves:
    (a) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antibodies
    (b) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antigen
    (c) the use of monoclonal antibodies cure a disease
    (d) use of antibiotics to cure diseases

    • Vaccination means providing protective immunity
    • Antigen is agent which causes disease so inject attenuated / dead antigen so that antibody is produced in the body
    • Was very much in news due to OPV/IPV, new vaccine introduction

    Learning – OPV v/s IPV, Switch over day, 4 new vaccines in UIP

    8) Which of the following are examples of carnivorous plants?
    (a) Sundew Venus fly trap, Pitcher plant
    (b) Cuscuta , Rafflesia Mistletoe
    (c) Sandalwood tree, Broom rape, Pitcher plant
    (d) Cuscuta, Bladderwort, Mistletoe

    NCERT botany last 4 chapters ecology

    9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
    List I List II
    (Isotope) (Application)
    A. Carbon 1. Treatment of goiter
    B. Cobalt 2. Calculation of age of the earth
    C. Iodine 3. Treatment of cancer
    D. Uranium 4. Fuel in nuclear reactors
    Code:
    A B C D
    (a) 2 3 1 4
    (b) 2 1 3 4
    (c) 4 1 3 2
    (d) 4 3 1 2

    • Uranium – nuclear fuel is easy peasy, eliminate c and d
    • Iodene – goitre is also very easy so c -1,
    • only option is a

    Learning – Role of iodine, Cobalt, Gd, Vitamins and diaereses

    10. Which one of the following statements regarding Zika virus is not correct?
    (a) It was first isolated from a monkey is the Zika forest of Uganda
    (b) It is transmitted by daytime-active Aedes mosquitoes
    (c) It does not cause mother to child infection  (d) Zika virus in pregnant women result in abnormal brain development of the fetus.

    • C and D contradict each other, one has to be true
    • All the concern is due to abnormal brain development of the fetus – microcephaly and all

    Learning – Mode of transmission of Zika, other diseases caused by Aedes, Japanese encephalitis and it’s vaccine

  • CAPF 2016 Polity Solutions and Analysis

    Subjects:

    Three quick points before solutions and analysis

    1. This is the solution and analysis of polity questions from CAPF 2016 conducted by UPSC couple of weeks back.
    2. Questions on political theories were also asked <they were asked last year too> but since such questions are not asked in CSE, they are not discussed
    3. Almost in fact all the questions can be solved after reading tit-bits and last 6 years solutions and analysis and some logic

    1. Which one of the following is a characteristic of Presidential form of Government?
    (a) President is not a part of legislative body
    (b) It does not separate Legislative and Executive functions
    (c) President follows the principle of collective responsibility
    (d) The tenure of the President depends on the Legislature

    • Asked multiple times as characteristic of parliamentary form.
    • Complete separation of Legislature and executive. President not part of Legislature, minister not part of Legislature. Not accountable to Legislature
    • In parliamentary form, executive is the part of legislature as in India

    Learning – Parliamentary v/s presidential form of govt, advantages  disadvantages

    1. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the abolition and creation of Legislative Councils?
      (a) Article 171
      (b) Article 169
      (c) Article 356
      (d) Article 182

    Article number but very important . We covered it in titbit.

    Learning – provisions under art 169, Legilsative councils v/s RAjya Sabha, States having legislative councils

    1. The provision under Article 51A of the Constitution of India relates to the :
      (a) uniform civil code for the citizens
      (b) orginsation of village panchayats
      (c) right to education
      (d) fundamental duties
    • Very simple. Covered in titbit.
    • Has been asked multiple times, FRs, FDs, DPSPs and Preamble is very very imp

    Learning – Learn  FRs, FDs, DPSPs and Preamble by heart

    1. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on :
      (a) 15 August 1946
      (b) 15 August 1947
      (c) 26 January 1950
      (d) 26 January 1957

    You only needed to know, it came into force after Indian constitution came into force. Only one such option

    Learning – article 370, amendment of article 370, Governor’s rule v/s president’s rule

    1. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are correct?
      1. It was not based on adult franchise
      2. It is resulted from direct election
      3. It was a multi part body
      4. It worked through several committees
      Select the correct answer using the code given below:
      (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 4 only
      (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    • 4 is definitely correct as we know about drafting committee, committee on fundamental rights
    • 2 is definitely incorrect as there were indirect elections by members of provincial legislative assembly <asked multiple times, discussed in CSE polity analysis
    • eliminate 2, include 4, answer 1 and 4 only

    Learning – election to constituent assembly, cabinet mission plan, chairpersons of important committees

    6. Who among the following may be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad?
    (a) Chief Miniester
    (b) District Collector
    (c) Member of Parliament in the Distric
    (d) Elected from its own members

    • 73rd and 74th amendment very important as we discussed before
    • 1st 3 options are anyway bogus
    • CEO is an IAS officer but he / she is not district collector either

    Learning – Direct election v/s election from among st members for chairperson of 3 tiers of rural and urban local bodies, district planning committee, metropolitan planning committee

    1. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
      (a) Every State Government has powers of its own
      (b) Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels of government
      (c) States are subordinate to the Central Government
      (d) Sources of revenue for each level of  Government are clearly specified

    States are not subordinate in federal set up but derive their power from constitution

    Learning – Unitary features of Indian federalism, Parliament power to legislate on state list

    1. Which one of the following statements regarding Human Rights is not correct?
      (a) Human Rights derive their inspiration from moral principles
      (b) They are applicable subject to their adoption by States
      (c) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights was adopted by the United Nations
      in the year 1948
      (d) The universalism of Human Rights is challenged by the cultural relativists
    • A,b are easily correct.
    • D is also correct as cultural relativist would believe in different rights for different culture and thus challenge universalism of human rights.
    • C is the only option left which should be incorrect
    • International Covenant on civil and political rights was adopted in 1966 and came into force in 1976

    Learning – Bill of human rights, UN human rights council v/s UN human rights committee

    1. The theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between:
      (a) Central and State Governments
      (b) Different branches of Government
      (c) the polity and the economy
      (d) state and local governments
    • Discussed in titbit.
    • Separation of power is separation among different branches of government. Among Legislature, executive and judiciary

    Learning – Theory of Separation of power v/s theory of checks and balances, doctrine of color able legislation v/s doctrine of pith and substance

    1. The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to :
      (a) the provisions relating to the formation of District Councils
      (b) the land reforms
      (c) the States and Union Territories
      (d) the anti-defection law.

    Asked multiple times

    Learning – 52nd and 85th amendment, authority adjudicating anti defection law, role of Election commissioner in anti defection law, role of EC in disqualification 


    11. The amending power of the Parliament is set forth in which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
    (a) Article 368
    (b) Article 360
    (c) Article 13(2)
    (d) Article 370

    Easy article. Covered in titbits

    Learn – Amendment by simple majority v/s special majority v/s special plus half the states


    12. With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill
    (b) Each House needs to pass the Bill separately by a prescribed special majority
    (c) The Bill can be introduced in either House Parliment
    (d) The Bill can be sponsored by a private member

    • Covered in titbits
    • Both houses have to pass the bill separately
    • No joint sitting for money bill and constitution amendment bill

    Learning – Constitution amendment bill and 24th amendment, basic structure doctrine

    13. ‘Cut Motion’ can be introduced after the presentation of :
    (a) any Bill introduced in the Parliament
    (b) the Railway and General Budgets
    (c) any Private Member’s Bill
    (d) a Constitution Amendment Bill

    • Covered in titbit
    • Cut the budget

    Learning – Different types of cut motion, Guillotine

    1. Consider the following statements about the Morley – Minto reforms of 1909 :
      1. They were named after the British Parliamentarians, Minto and Morley
      2. They Provided for limited self government by increasing the number of elected Indians in the Legislative Councils
      3. They contained provisions that ensured that British officials retained their majority in the
      Imperial Legislative Council
      Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
      (a) 1 only
      (b) 2 and 3 only
      (c) 1 and 3 only
      (d) 1, 2 and 3
    • Covered in titbits
    • Morley secretary of state, thus parliamentarian as parliamentary form of govt in Britain.
    • Minto viceroy thus not parliamentarian.
    • Eliminate statement 1, reach the conclusion

    Learning – Morley Minto reform, Montagu Chelmsford reform,  GOI act 1935, cabinet mission plan

  • UPSC Prelims Economy Trend Analysis: Part 5

    Prelims 2009

    1. Consider the following statements:

    1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.
    2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs. Food and Public: Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • It recommends it for around 25 crops. Not more than 30 in any case  ( question on data this time but it’s not a close data i.e 23 or 24. You must have some idea)
    • Agriculture ministry should launch mission to increase agri production, no?

    Learning – CACP, MSP, CCEA, Procurement price v/s issue price, Shanta Kumar committee recommendations, decentralised procurement

    2. To integrate cultural leaders into its meetings, which one of the following gives “CrystaIAward”?

    1. Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation
    2. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
    3. World Health Organization
    4. World Economic Forum
    • Only private organizations try to do such things. Integrate cultural leaders.
    • WEF- bingo

    Learning – India and membership of APEC, world health assembly and zika

    Reports of World Economic Forum

    3. In the context of Indian news in recent times, what is MCX – SX?

    1. A kind of supercomputer
    2. Title of Moon Impact Probe
    3. Stock Exchange
    4. Nuclear-Powered submarine

    Obvious, stock exchange

    Learning – commodity exchange, stock exchange, money market v/s capital market

    4. NAMA-11 (Nama-11) group of countries frequently appears in the news in the context of the affairs of which one of the following?

    1. Nuclear Suppliers Group
    2. World Bank
    3. World Economic Forum
    4. W.T.O.
    • Just terms NAMA – non agricultural market access
    • Obviously WTO

    Learning – NAMA, G-33,;G-77, G-7, G-4, Agreement on agriculture, Process v/s product patent, plurilateral v/s multilateral agreements

    5. Among other things, which one of the following was the purpose for which the Deepak Parekh Committee was constituted?

    1. To study the current socio-economic conditions of certain minority communities
    2. To suggest measures for financing the development of infrastructure
    3. To frame a policy on the production of genetically modified organisms.
    4. To suggest measures to reduce the fiscal deficit in the Union Budget.
    • Deepak parikh is a banker so b/w b and d
    • Answer is actually b

    Learning – committees and their reports, follow the govt committee bundle on the home page

    6. In the context of independent India’s Economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place?

    1. Nationalisation of Insurance companies
    2. Nationalisation of State Bank of India
    3. Enactment of Banking Regulation Act
    4. Introduction of First Five-Year Plan
    • 1st place we all know – 1950 -55, nationalisation of banks was in 1969 and 1980 but SBI was nationalised way back in 1955
    • Life insurance was nationalised in 1956
    • Banking regulation act – 1949

    Learning – years of bank nationalisation, insurance nationalisation, RRB, NABARD, LEAD BANK, SIDBI, local area bank, Earlier name of SBI, formation of RBI

    7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    1. Japan: Nikkei
    2. Singapore: Shcomp
    3. UK : FISE
    4. USA : Nasdaq

    A nd d are easily correct. Always in news bulletin.

    Make a guess here. Singapore

    Learning – BSE v/s NSE, Nifty v/s sensex,

    8. Consider the following:

    1. Fringe Benefit Tax
    2. Interest Tax
    3. Securities Transaction Tax

    Which of the above is/ are Direct Tax/Taxes?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    • Interest tax and a securities transaction tax clearly direct taxes
    • Fringe benefit tax <taxation on perks and perquisites>has been abolished now, won’t be asked again. It’s a direct tax

    Learning – tax Levying,collecting authority, accrue to whom, divide all taxes b/w direct and indirect taxes

    9. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning:

    1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasized on the establishment of heavy industries.
    2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialization.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    • 1 is correct. We all know that.
    • Import substitution -3rd plan

    Learning – 3 points about every 5 year plan, Import substitution, Indicative planning

    10. In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    1. JP Morgan Chase     : Financial Services
    2. Roche Holding AG     : Financial Services
    3. WL Ross & Co.     : Private Equity Firm
    4. Warburg     : Private Equity Firm

    They no longer ask such questions. May be they asked this in the wake of financial crisis.

    11. Consider the following statements :

    The functions of commercial banks in India include

    1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
    2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

    Learning– commercial v/s non commercial banks, investment banks, underwriting of shares

    12. Which of the following is / are treated as artificial currency?

    A. ADR
    B. GDR
    C. SDR
    D. Both ADR and SDR

    • SDR is special drawing rights. It’s unit of account of IMF. Though not a currency, sometimes considered as artificial reserve currency
    • ADR is American depository receipt
    • GDR is global depository receipt

    Learning – SDR basket, Criteria for inclusion in SDR basket, Quota changes IMF, ADR v/s GDR v/s IDR

    13. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with

    A. The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map
    B. The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure, a more sustainable global order
    C. Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism
    D. Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario

    • Stiglitz we all know is Nobel laureate in economics so would do something related to economy and finance
    • Only option is b

    14. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?

    A. Rice and wheat only
    B. Rice, wheat and pulses only
    C. Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
    D. Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables

    Learning — National Food Security mission v/s National Food security act

    15. Which one of the following brings out the publication called “Energy Statistics” from time to time?

    A. Central Power Research Institute
    B. Planning Commission
    C. Power Finance Corporation Ltd.
    D. Central Statistical Organization

    Reports very important

    16. During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected?

    A. Third
    B. Fourth
    C. Fifth     
    D. Sixth

    • After st 3 plan, there were 3 plan holidays due to wars and famine
    • 4th plan from 1969 to 1974
    • Emergency in 1975 so obviously 5th plan

    Learning – 3 pointers about every plan

    17. With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt?

    A. Review of Centre-state relations
    B. Review of Delimitation Act
    C. Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues
    D. Price reform in the oil sector

    • B. K Chaturvedi is former cabinet secretary and member planning commission
    • It was in news then
    • he also headed committee to restructure centrally sponsored schemes

    Learning – oil sector reform, Restructuring of CSS, Delimitation act

    18. Who among the following is the founder of World Economic Forum?

    A. Klaus Schwab
    B. John Kenneth Galbraith
    C. Robert Zoellick
    D. Paul Krugman

    19. .Consider the following pairs:

    Organisation                                    Location of Headquarters

    1. Asian Development Bank                        Tokyo
    2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation            Singapore
    3. Association of South East Asian Nations    Bangkok

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both 1 and 2
    D. Neither 1 nor 2

    • ADB HQ is in Manila
    • ASEAN is Jakarta

    Learning – Headquarters of imp, organizations, all 6 bodies of UN, UNICEF, IMF, WB, WTO, ADB, BRICS bank, ASEAN , G- 20 etc

    P.S. – This completes our analysis of prelims economy